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Finance

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The after-tax cost of debt usually exceeds the after-tax cost of equity. b. For a given firm, the after-tax cost of debt is always more expensive than the after-tax cost of non-convertible preferred stock. c. Retained earnings that were generated in the past and are reported on the firm's balance sheet are available to finance the firm's capital budget during the coming year. d. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital. e. The WACC is calculated using before-tax costs for all components.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. WACC calculations should be based on the before-tax costs of all the individual capital components. b. Flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock normally reduce the WACC. c. If a company's tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline. d. An increase in the risk-free rate will normally lower the marginal costs of both debt and equity financing. e. A change in a company's target capital structure cannot affect its WACC.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The percentage flotation cost associated with issuing new common equity is typically smaller than the flotation cost for new debt. b. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of the cost of all the capital a company has raised to acquire its assets. c. There is an "opportunity cost" associated with using reinvested earnings, hence they are not "free." d. The WACC as used in capital budgeting would be simply the after-tax cost of debt if the firm plans to use only debt to finance its capital budget during the coming year. e. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of a company's before-tax cost of capital.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?a. We should use historical measures of the component costs from prior financings that are still outstanding when estimating a company's WACC for capital budgeting purposes.b. The cost of new equity (re) could possibly be lower than the cost of reinvested earnings (rs) if the market risk premium, risk-free rate, and the company's beta all decline by a sufficiently large amount.c. A firm's cost of reinvesting earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm's common stock.d. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 - T), because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of interest on debt.e. In the WACC calculation, we must adjust the cost of preferred stock (the market yield) to reflect the fact that 70% of the dividends received by corporate investors are excluded from their taxable income.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes, because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying corporation. b. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the CAPM. c. If a company's beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough reinvested earnings to take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock. d. Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a reduction in a company's WACC. e. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.

Q: For a typical firm, which of the following sequences is CORRECT? All rates are after taxes, and assume that the firm operates at its target capital structure. a. re > rs > WACC > rd. b. WACC > re > rs > rd. c. rd > re > rs > WACC. d. WACC > rd > rs > re. e. rs > re > rd > WACC.

Q: The lower the firm's tax rate, the lower will be its after-tax cost of debt and also its WACC, other things held constant. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt, rd, is normally less than rs, so rd(1 - T) will normally be much less than rs. Therefore, as long as the firm is not completely debt financed, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) will normally be greater than rd(1 - T).a. Trueb. False

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method, we can generally get a good idea of the interest rate on new long-term debt, but we cannot be sure that the risk premium we add is appropriate. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: In general, firms should use their weighted average cost of capital (WACC) to evaluate capital budgeting projects because most projects are funded with general corporate funds, which come from a variety of sources. However, if the firm plans to use only debt or only equity to fund a particular project, it should use the after-tax cost of that specific type of capital to evaluate that project. a. True b. False

Q: For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should assume that each dollar of capital is obtained in accordance with its target capital structure, which for many firms means partly as debt, partly as preferred stock, and partly common equity. a. True b. False

Q: Suppose you are the president of a small, publicly-traded corporation. Since you believe that your firm's stock price is temporarily depressed, all additional capital funds required during the current year will be raised using debt. In this case, the appropriate marginal cost of capital for use in capital budgeting during the current year is the after-tax cost of debt. a. True b. False

Q: The CEO of Harding Media Inc. as asked you to help estimate its cost of common equity. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.85; P0 = $22.00; and gL = 6.00% (constant). The CEO thinks, however, that the stock price is temporarily depressed, and that it will soon rise to $40.00. Based on the dividend growth model, by how much would the cost of common from reinvested earnings change if the stock price changes as the CEO expects?a. -1.49%b. -1.66%c. -1.84%d. -2.03%e. -2.23%

Q: As the assistant to the CFO of Johnstone Inc., you must estimate its cost of common equity. You have been provided with the following data: D0 = $0.80; P0 = $22.50; and gL = 8.00% (constant). Based on the dividend growth model, what is the cost of common from reinvested earnings?a. 10.69%b. 11.25%c. 11.84%d. 12.43%e. 13.05%

Q: To help estimate its cost of common equity, Maxwell and Associates recently hired you. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.90; P0 = $27.50; and gL = 7.00% (constant). Based on thedividend growthmodel, what is the cost of common from reinvested earnings?a. 9.29%b. 9.68%c. 10.08%d. 10.50%e. 10.92%

Q: To help them estimate the company's cost of capital, Smithco has hired you as a consultant. You have been provided with the following data: D1 = $1.45; P0 = $22.50; and gL = 6.50% (constant). Based on the dividend growth approach, what is the cost of common from reinvested earnings?a. 11.10%b. 11.68%c. 12.30%d. 12.94%e. 13.59%

Q: As a consultant to Basso Inc., you have been provided with the following data: D1 = $0.67; P0 = $27.50; and gL = 8.00% (constant). What is the cost of common from reinvested earnings based on the dividend growthapproach?a. 9.42%b. 9.91%c. 10.44%d. 10.96%e. 11.51%

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the dividend growth method, the single biggest potential problem is to determine the growth rate that investors use when they estimate a stock's expected future rate of return. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: Collins GroupThe Collins Group, a leading producer of custom automobile accessories, has hired you to estimate the firm's weighted average cost of capital. The balance sheet and some other information are provided below.Assets Current assets $ 38,000,000Net plant, property, and equipment 101,000,000Total assets $139,000,000 Liabilities and Equity Accounts payable $ 10,000,000Accruals 9,000,000Current liabilities $ 19,000,000Long-term debt (40,000 bonds, $1,000 par value) 40,000,000Total liabilities $ 59,000,000Common stock (10,000,000 shares) 30,000,000Retained earnings 50,000,000Total shareholders' equity 80,000,000Total liabilities and shareholders' equity $139,000,000The stock is currently selling for $15.25 per share, and its noncallable $1,000 par value, 20-year, 7.25% bonds with semiannual payments are selling for $875.00. The beta is 1.25, the yield on a 6-month Treasury bill is 3.50%, and the yield on a 20-year Treasury bond is 5.50%. The required return on the stock market is 11.50%, but the market has had an average annual return of 14.50% during the past 5 years. The firm's tax rate is 40%.Refer to the data for the Collins Group. Based on the CAPM, what is the firm's cost of common stock?a. 11.15%b. 11.73%c. 12.35%d. 13.00%e. 13.65%

Q: You have been hired as a consultant by Feludi Inc.'s CFO, who wants you to help her estimate the cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: rRF = 4.10%; RPM = 5.25%; and b = 1.30. Based on the CAPM approach, what is the cost of common from reinvested earnings?a. 9.67%b. 9.97%c. 10.28%d. 10.60%e. 10.93%

Q: Adams Inc. has the following data: rRF = 5.00%; RPM = 6.00%; and b = 1.05. What is the firm's cost of common from reinvested earnings based on the CAPM?a. 11.30%b. 11.64%c. 11.99%d. 12.35%e. 12.72%

Q: When working with the CAPM, which of the following factors can be determined with the most precision? a. The beta coefficient, bi, of a relatively safe stock. b. The most appropriate risk-free rate, rRF. c. The expected rate of return on the market, rM. d. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock. e. The market risk premium (RPM).

Q: If investors' aversion to risk rose, causing the slope of the SML to increase, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Other things held constant, this would lead to an increase in the use of debt and a decrease in the use of equity. However, other things would not stay constant if firms used a lot more debt, as that would increase the riskiness of both debt and equity and thus limit the shift toward debt. a. True b. False

Q: If expectations for long-term inflation rose, but the slope of the SML remained constant, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Therefore, the percentage point increase in the cost of equity would be greater than the increase in the interest rate on long-term debt. a. True b. False

Q: The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from reinvested earnings (not newly issued stock): the CAPM method, the dividend growthmethod, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. However, only the dividend growth method is widely used in practice. a. True b. False

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the CAPM, three potential problems are (1) whether to use long-term or short-term rates for rRF, (2) whether or not the historical beta is the beta that investors use when evaluating the stock, and (3) how to measure the market risk premium, RPM. These problems leave us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: The reason why reinvested earnings have a cost equal to rs is because investors think they can (i.e., expect to) earn rs on investments with the same risk as the firm's common stock, and if the firm does not think that it can earn rs on the earnings that it retains, it should distribute those earnings to its investors. Thus, the cost of reinvested earnings is based on the opportunity cost principle. a. True b. False

Q: The firm's cost of external equity raised by issuing new stock is the same as the required rate of return on the firm's outstanding common stock. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of equity raised by retaining earnings can be less than, equal to, or greater than the cost of external equity raised by selling new issues of common stock, depending on tax rates, flotation costs, the attitude of investors, and other factors. a. True b. False

Q: Funds acquired by the firm through retaining earnings have no cost because there are no dividend or interest payments associated with them, and no flotation costs are required to raise them, but capital raised by selling new stock or bonds does have a cost. a. True b. False

Q: For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should always consider reinvested earnings as the first source of capital-i.e., use these funds first-because reinvested earnings have no cost to the firm.a. Trueb. False

Q: The cost of common equity obtained by retaining earnings is the rate of return the marginal stockholder requires on the firm's common stock. a. True b. False

Q: A company's perpetual preferred stock currently sells for $92.50 per share, and it pays an $8.00 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 5.00% of the issue price. What is the firm's cost of preferred stock?a. 7.81%b. 8.22%c. 8.65%d. 9.10%e. 9.56%

Q: Perpetual preferred stock from Franklin Inc. sells for $97.50 per share, and it pays an $8.50 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 4.00% of the price paid by investors. What is the company's cost of preferred stock for use in calculating the WACC?a. 8.72%b. 9.08%c. 9.44%d. 9.82%e. 10.22%

Q: Since 70% of the preferred dividends received by a corporation are excluded from taxable income, the component cost of equity for a company that pays half of its earnings out as common dividends and half as preferred dividends should, theoretically, beCost of equity = rs(0.30)(0.50) + rps(1 - T)(0.70)(0.50).a. Trueb. False

Q: The cost of perpetual preferred stock is found as the preferred's annual dividend divided by the market price of the preferred stock. No adjustment is needed for taxes because preferred dividends, unlike interest on debt, is not deductible by the issuing firm. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of preferred stock to a firm must be adjusted to an after-tax figure because 70% of dividends received by a corporation may be excluded from the receiving corporation's taxable income. a. True b. False

Q: Collins GroupThe Collins Group, a leading producer of custom automobile accessories, has hired you to estimate the firm's weighted average cost of capital. The balance sheet and some other information are provided below.Assets Current assets $ 38,000,000Net plant, property, and equipment 101,000,000Total assets $139,000,000 Liabilities and Equity Accounts payable $ 10,000,000Accruals 9,000,000Current liabilities $ 19,000,000Long-term debt (40,000 bonds, $1,000 par value) 40,000,000Total liabilities $ 59,000,000Common stock (10,000,000 shares) 30,000,000Retained earnings 50,000,000Total shareholders' equity 80,000,000Total liabilities and shareholders' equity $139,000,000Refer to the data for the Collins Group. What is the best estimate of the after-tax cost of debt?a. 4.64%b. 4.88%c. 5.14%d. 5.40%e. 5.67%

Q: Westbrook's Painting Co. plans to issue a $1,000 par value, 20-year noncallable bond with a 7.00% annual coupon, paid semiannually. The company's marginal tax rate is 40.00%, but Congress is considering a change in the corporate tax rate to 30.00%. By how much would the component cost of debt used to calculate the WACC change if the new tax rate was adopted?a. 0.57%b. 0.63%c. 0.70%d. 0.77%e. 0.85%

Q: The Lincoln Company sold a $1,000 par value, noncallable bond several years ago that now has 20 years to maturity and a 7.00% annual coupon that is paid semiannually. The bond currently sells for $925 and the company's tax rate is 40%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation?a. 4.28%b. 4.46%c. 4.65%d. 4.83%e. 5.03%

Q: Kenny Electric Company's noncallable bonds were issued several years ago and now have 20 years to maturity. These bonds have a 9.25% annual coupon, paid semiannually, sells at a price of $1,075, and has a par value of $1,000. If the firm's tax rate is 40%, what is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation?a. 4.35%b. 4.58%c. 4.83%d. 5.08%e. 5.33%

Q: If a firm's marginal tax rate is increased, this would, other things held constant, lower the cost of debt used to calculate its WACC. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate on new debt. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt. a. True b. False

Q: The before-tax cost of debt, which is lower than the after-tax cost, is used as the component cost of debt for purposes of developing the firm's WACC. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following is NOT a capital component when calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for use in capital budgeting? a. Accounts payable. b. Common stock "raised" by reinvesting earnings. c. Common stock raised by new issues. d. Preferred stock. e. Long-term debt.

Q: The component costs of capital are market-determined variables in the sense that they are based on investors' required returns. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of capital used in capital budgeting should reflect the average cost of the various sources of long-term funds a firm uses to acquire assets. a. True b. False

Q: "Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors. a. True b. False

Q: An analyst wants to use the Black-Scholes model to value call options on the stock of Heath Corporation based on the following data:The price of the stock is $40.The strike price of the option is $40.The option matures in 3 months (t = 0.25).The standard deviation of the stock's returns is 0.40, and the variance is 0.16.The risk-free rate is 6%.Given this information, the analyst then calculated the following necessary components of the Black-Scholes model:d1 = 0.175d2 = -0.025N(d1) = 0.56946N(d2) = 0.49003N(d1) and N(d2) represent areas under a standard normal distribution function. Using the Black-Scholes model, what is the value of the call option?a. $2.81b. $3.12c. $3.47d. $3.82e. $4.20

Q: The current price of a stock is $22, and at the end of one year its price will be either $27 or $17. The annual risk-free rate is 6.0%, based on daily compounding. A 1-year call option on the stock, with an exercise price of $22, is available. Based on the binomial model, what is the option's value? (Hint: Use daily compounding.)a. $2.43b. $2.70c. $2.99d. $3.29e. $3.62

Q: The current price of a stock is $50, the annual risk-free rate is 6%, and a 1-year call option with a strike price of $55 sells for $7.20. What is the value of a put option, assuming the same strike price and expiration date as for the call option?a. $7.33b. $7.71c. $8.12d. $8.55e. $9.00

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Call options generally sell at a price less than their exercise value. b. If a stock becomes riskier (more volatile), call options on the stock are likely to decline in value. c. Call options generally sell at prices above their exercise value, but for an in-the-money option, the greater the exercise value in relation to the strike price, the lower the premium on the option is likely to be. d. Because of the put-call parity relationship, under equilibrium conditions a put option on a stock must sell at exactly the same price as a call option on the stock. e. If the underlying stock does not pay a dividend, it makes good economic sense to exercise a call option as soon as the stock's price exceeds the strike price by about 10%, because this permits the option holder to lock in an immediate profit.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Call options generally sell at a price greater than their exercise value, and the greater the exercise value, the higher the premium on the option is likely to be. b. Call options generally sell at a price below their exercise value, and the greater the exercise value, the lower the premium on the option is likely to be. c. Call options generally sell at a price below their exercise value, and the lower the exercise value, the lower the premium on the option is likely to be. d. Because of the put-call parity relationship, under equilibrium conditions a put option on a stock must sell at exactly the same price as a call option on the stock. e. If the underlying stock does not pay a dividend, it does not make good economic sense to exercise a call option prior to its expiration date, even if this would yield an immediate profit.

Q: If a company announces a change in its dividend policy from a zero target payout ratio to a 100% payout policy, this action could be expected to increase the value of long-term options (say 5-year options) on the firm's stock. a. True b. False

Q: Because of the put-call parity relationship, under equilibrium conditions a put option on a stock must sell at exactly the same price as a call option on the stock, provided the strike prices for the put and call are the same. a. True b. False

Q: Suppose you believe that Florio Company's stock price is going to decline from its current level of $82.50 sometime during the next 5 months. For $5.10 you could buy a 5-month put option giving you the right to sell 1 share at a price of $85 per share. If you bought this option for $5.10 and Florio's stock price actually dropped to $60, what would your pre-tax net profit be?a. -$5.10b. $19.90c. $20.90d. $22.50e. $27.60

Q: Suppose you believe that Basso Inc.'s stock price is going to increase from its current level of $22.50 sometime during the next 5 months. For $3.10 you can buy a 5-month call option giving you the right to buy 1 share at a price of $25 per share. If you buy this option for $3.10 and Basso's stock price actually rises to $45, what would your pre-tax net profit be?a. -$3.10b. $16.90c. $17.75d. $22.50e. $25.60

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. As the stock's price rises, the time value portion of an option on a stock increases because the difference between the price of the stock and the fixed strike price increases. b. Issuing options provides companies with a low cost method of raising capital. c. The market value of an option depends in part on the option's time to maturity and also on the variability of the underlying stock's price. d. The potential loss on an option decreases as the option sells at higher and higher prices because the profit margin gets bigger. e. An option's value is determined by its exercise value, which is the market price of the stock less its striking price. Thus, an option can't sell for more than its exercise value.

Q: Braddock Construction Co.'s stock is trading at $20 a share. Call options that expire in three months with a strike price of $20 sell for $1.50. Which of the following will occur if the stock price increases 10%, to $22 a share? a. The price of the call option will increase by more than $2. b. The price of the call option will increase by less than $2, and the percentage increase in price will be less than 10%. c. The price of the call option will increase by less than $2, but the percentage increase in price will be more than 10%. d. The price of the call option will increase by more than $2, but the percentage increase in price will be less than 10%. e. The price of the call option will increase by $2.

Q: Cazden Motors' stock is trading at $30 a share. Call options on the company's stock are also available, some with a strike price of $25 and some with a strike price of $35. Both options expire in three months. Which of the following best describes the value of these options? a. The options with the $25 strike price will sell for less than the options with the $35 strike price. b. The options with the $25 strike price have an exercise value greater than $5. c. The options with the $35 strike price have an exercise value greater than $0. d. If Cazden's stock price rose by $5, the exercise value of the options with the $25 strike price would also increase by $5. e. The options with the $25 strike price will sell for $5.

Q: An investor who writes standard call options against stock held in his or her portfolio is said to be selling what type of options? a. Put b. Naked c. Covered d. Out-of-the-money e. In-the-money

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Call options give investors the right to sell a stock at a certain strike price before a specified date. b. Options typically sell for less than their exercise value. c. LEAPS are very short-term options that were created relatively recently and now trade in the market. d. An option holder is not entitled to receive dividends unless he or she exercises their option before the stock goes ex dividend. e. Put options give investors the right to buy a stock at a certain strike price before a specified date.

Q: BLW Corporation is considering the terms to be set on the options it plans to issue to its executives. Which of the following actions would decrease the value of the options, other things held constant? a. The exercise price of the option is increased. b. The life of the option is increased, i.e., the time until it expires is lengthened. c. The Federal Reserve takes actions that increase the risk-free rate. d. BLW's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance). e. BLW's stock price suddenly increases.

Q: Which of the following statements is most correct, holding other things constant, for XYZ Corporation's traded call options? a. The higher the strike price on XYZ's options, the higher the option's price will be. b. Assuming the same strike price, an XYZ call option that expires in one month will sell at a higher price than one that expires in three months. c. If XYZ's stock price stabilizes (becomes less volatile), then the price of its options will increase. d. If XYZ pays a dividend, then its option holders will not receive a cash payment, but the strike price of the option will be reduced by the amount of the dividend. e. The price of these call options is likely to rise if XYZ's stock price rises.

Q: Other things held constant, the value of an option depends on the stock's price, the risk-free rate, and the a. Variability of the stock price. b. Option's time to maturity. c. Strike price. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

Q: An option that gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a specified price at some future time is a. a put option. b. an out-of-the-money option. c. a naked option. d. a covered option. e. a call option.

Q: If we define the "premium" on an option to be the difference between the price at which an option sells and the exercise value (or the difference between the stock's current market price and the strike price), then we would expect the premium to increase as the stock price increases, other things held constant. a. True b. False

Q: Because of the time value of money, the longer before an option expires, the less valuable the option will be, other things held constant. a. True b. False

Q: Since investors tend to dislike risk and like certainty, the more volatile a stock, the less valuable will be an option to purchase the stock, other things held constant. a. True b. False

Q: If the market is in equilibrium, then an option must sell at a price that is exactly equal to the difference between the stock's current price and the option's strike price. a. True b. False

Q: If the current price of a stock is below the strike price, then an option to buy the stock is worthless and will have a zero value. a. True b. False

Q: As the price of a stock rises above the strike price, the value investors are willing to pay for a call option increases because both (1) the immediate capital gain that can be realized by exercising the option and (2) the likely exercise value of the option when it expires have both increased. a. True b. False

Q: The exercise value is also called the strike price, but this term is generally used when discussing convertibles rather than financial options. a. True b. False

Q: If a stock's price is above the strike price of a call option written on the stock, then the exercise value is equal to the stock price minus the strike price. If the stock price is below the strike price, the exercise value of the call option is zero. a. True b. False

Q: The strike price is the price that must be paid for a share of common stock when it is bought by exercising a warrant. a. True b. False

Q: An option is a contract that gives its holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price within a specified period of time. a. True b. False

Q: Alcott's preferred stock pays a dividend of $1.00 per quarter. If the price of the stock is $45.00, what is its nominal (not effective) annual rate of return?a. 8.03%b. 8.24%c. 8.45%d. 8.67%e. 8.89%

Q: Carby Hardware has an outstanding issue of perpetual preferred stock with an annual dividend of $7.50 per share. If the required return on this preferred stock is 6.5%, at what price should the preferred stock sell?a. $104.27b. $106.95c. $109.69d. $112.50e. $115.38

Q: From an investor's perspective, a firm's preferred stock is generally considered to be less risky than its common stock but more risky than its bonds. However, from a corporate issuer's standpoint, these risk relationships are reversed: Bonds are the most risky for the firm, preferred is next, and common is least risky. a. True b. False

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