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Q:
Which of the following is not generally eligible for trademark protection?
A) trade dress
B) shapes
C) words
D) surnames
E) designs or logos
Q:
A trademark is renewable:
A) every 10 years, as long as the mark remains in use
B) indefinitely, regardless of whether the mark remains in use
C) every 20 years from the date of application for the trademark
D) every 3 years
E) every 33 years
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a certification mark?
A) ModCloth
B) International Franchise Association
C) Underwriter's Laboratories
D) Rotary International
E) 1-800-FREE-411
Q:
The Good Housekeeping Seal of Approval is an example of a(n):
A) collective mark
B) shared mark
C) service mark
D) certification mark
E) assessment mark
Q:
________ are trademarks or service marks used by the members of a cooperative, association, or other collective group, including marks indicating membership in a union or similar organization.
A) Collective marks
B) Share marks
C) Examination marks
D) Joint marks
E) Certification marks
Q:
________ are similar to ordinary trademarks, but they are used to identify the services or intangible activities of a business rather than a business's physical product.
A) Creative marks
B) Intangible marks
C) Examination marks
D) Service marks
E) Subtle marks
Q:
Apple for computers, Zeo for sleep aids, and Proactiv for acne medication are examples of:A) certificationsB) copyrightsC) patentsD) trade secretsE) trademarks
Q:
Which of the following is not a type of trademark?
A) trademark
B) certification mark
C) documentation mark
D) collective mark
E) service mark
Q:
There are four types of trademarks:
A) trademarks, service marks, collective marks, and certification marks
B) examination marks, trademarks, combined marks, and service marks
C) shared marks, collective marks, mutual marks, and trademarks
D) service marks, cooperative market, trademarks, and shared marks
E) trademarks, collective marks, documentation marks, and combined marks
Q:
The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 12 starts by talking about Gary Schwartzberg, who, along with a partner, developed a new type of bagel dubbed the "Begeler," which was eventually licensed to Kraft. According to the feature, entrepreneurs and inventors, like Gary Schwartzberg, are finding that large consumer products companies are:A) ambivalent about what they have to offerB) increasingly interested in what they have to offer for new products, but are ambivalent about servicesC) increasingly interested in what they have to offerD) increasingly interested in what they have to offer for new services, but are ambivalent about productsE) increasingly disinterested in what they have to offer
Q:
________ takes place when one party engages in the unauthorized use of another party's patent.
A) Patent breach
B) Patent encroachment
C) Patent violation
D) Patent infraction
E) Patent infringement
Q:
A utility patent is good for ________ from the date of the original application, a design patent is good for ________ from the date the patent is granted, and a plant patent is good for ________ from the date of the original application.
A) 14 years, 14 years, 20 years
B) 20 years, 20 years, 14 years
C) 20 years, 20 years, 20 years
D) 20 years, 14 years, 20 years
E) 14 years, 20 years, 14 years
Q:
________ patents are the second most common type of patent and cover the invention of new, original, and ornamental designs for manufactured products.
A) Aesthetic
B) Utility
C) Visual
D) Blueprint
E) Design
Q:
Amazon.com's one-click ordering system, Priceline.com's "name-your-price" business model and Netflix's method for allowing customers to set up a rental list of movies they want mailed to them are examples of:A) copyright extension patentsB) utility patentsC) business process protection patentsD) trademark extension patentsE) business method patents
Q:
The term of a utility patent is:
A) 7 years from the date the patent is granted
B) 15 years from the date of the initial application
C) 15 years from the date the patent is granted
D) 20 years from the date of the initial application
E) 20 years from the date the patent is granted
Q:
There are three basic requirements for a patent to be granted. The subject of the patent application must be:
A) useful, difficult to copy, and novel in relation to prior arts in the field
B) based on cutting edge science or technology, not obvious to a person of ordinary skill in the field, and rare
C) useful, novel in relation to prior arts in the field, and not obvious to a person of ordinary skill in the field
D) rare, difficult to copy, and not obvious to a person of ordinary skill in the field
E) useful, scientific, and novel in relation to prior arts in the field
Q:
________ patents are the most common type of patent and cover what we generally think of as new inventions.
A) Value
B) Product
C) Method
D) Utility
E) Design
Q:
Which of the following selections correctly identifies the three types of patents?
A) manufacturing patents, process patents, and plant patents
B) usefulness patents, purpose patents, and genetic patents
C) explicit patents, implicit patents, and plant patents
D) utility patents, design patents, and plant patents
E) manufacturing patents, service patents, and other patents
Q:
Since the first patent was granted, there have been over ________ patents granted in the United States.
A) 500,000
B) 3 million
C) 5 million
D) 7 million
E) 9 million
Q:
The sole entity responsible for granting patents in the United States is the:
A) U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
B) Federal Patent, Copyright and Trademark Office
C) Securities and Exchange Commission
D) U.S. Departments of Patents
E) U.S. Treasury Department
Q:
Which form of intellectual property protection is the only one expressly mentioned in the original articles of the U.S. Constitution?A) assurancesB) patentsC) copyrightsD) trade secretsE) trademarks
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the four key forms of intellectual property protection?A) trade secretsB) copyrightsC) trademarksD) innovationsE) patents
Q:
Which of the following are the four key forms of intellectual property protection?A) patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secretsB) discoveries, covenants, trademarks, patentsC) patents, official documents, copyrights, inventionsD) discoveries, Internet domain names, innovations, trademarksE) convents, inventions, opportunities, and copyrights
Q:
The What Went Wrong feature in Chapter 12 focuses on Dippin' Dots, a company that sells ice cream snacks. Dippin' Dots lost the patent on its small beads of ice cream primarily because:A) it failed to obtain permission from a patent holder that has "prior art" pertaining to the claims in its patentB) it had sold its ice cream product one year prior to applying for a patentC) it filed its patent application incorrectlyD) its patent infringes on the patent of a competitorE) it failed to renew its patent on time
Q:
There are two primary rules of thumb for deciding if intellectual property protection should be pursued for a particular intellectual asset. First, a firm should determine if the intellectual property in question is directly related to its competitive advantage. Second, a firm should determine if its intellectual property:
A) is less than 20 years old
B) could be licensed to another company
C) has value in the marketplace
D) is something that was developed "in-house"
E) rightfully belongs to the firm or the employees who developed it
Q:
Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as one of the common mistakes that entrepreneurs make regarding intellectual property?
A) not fully recognizing the value of their intellectual property
B) not properly identifying all their intellectual property
C) not properly registering their Internet domain names
D) not using their intellectual property as part of their overall plan for success
E) not taking sufficient steps to protect their intellectual property
Q:
Which of the following is not an example of intellectual property?
A) Proactiv's formula for acne medication
B) Google's trademark
C) the Internet domain name www.nytimes.com
D) Microsoft's Windows operating system
E) a computer mouse
Q:
Which of the following is an example of intellectual property?
A) Microsoft's headquarters in Redmond, Washington
B) Nike's swoosh logo
C) the computer that you use
D) AirTran's fleet of planes
E) the trucks that deliver White Wave soymilk to grocery stores
Q:
Metroleap Media, Inc., places music lyrics on the Internet. The major hurdle that Metroleap Media had to overcome to become a legitimate business was to:A) find ways to protect its trademarkB) find ways to protect its trade secretsC) obtain a copyright on its Web siteD) obtain a patent on the functionality of its Web siteE) develop a protocol for obtaining licensing agreements from the music industry
Q:
Once a firm has segmented the market, the next step is to:
A) decide on a position within the segment
B) select a critical market
C) select a target market
D) select a focal market
E) immediately decide on the "4Ps" of the marketing strategy
Q:
Brenda Berry is thinking about starting a computer company. After doing some research, she has decided that the computer industry can be divided into the following product categories: handheld computers, laptops, tablet computers, PCs, minicomputers, and mainframes. She is now trying to decide which product category she is the most interested in competing in. The process that Brenda is going through is called:
A) market splitting
B) market subdividing
C) market segmentation
D) market dividing
E) market separating
Q:
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in regard to the process of selecting a target market and position strategy?
A) creating a unique positioning strategy, selecting a target market, segmenting the market
B) segmenting the market, creating a unique positioning strategy, selecting a target market
C) segmenting the market, selecting a target market, creating a unique positioning strategy
D) selecting a target market, creating a unique positioning strategy, segmenting the market
E) creating a unique positioning strategy, segmenting the market, selecting a target market
Q:
The first step in selecting a target market is to study the industry in which the firm intends to compete and determine the different potential target markets in that industry. This process is called:
A) market positioning
B) market splitting
C) market targeting
D) market subdividing
E) market segmentation
Q:
Andy Sanders owns a sporting goods store that appeals to hunters and fishermen. The market that Andy is trying to appeal to is called his:
A) focal market
B) objective market
C) target market
D) critical market
E) intention market
Q:
True You Cosmetics, the company profiled in the opening feature in Chapter 11, sells cosmetics products. The company's marketing efforts to date have focused heavily on:A) Google AdWords and AdSenseB) print advertisingC) radioD) social mediaE) television advertising
Q:
What is an exclusive distribution agreement? Why do firms enter into exclusive distribution agreements with other firms?
Q:
Describe the concept of guerrilla marketing. Why is guerrilla marketing particularly suitable for entrepreneurial firms?
Q:
What is a brand? How does a new firm develop a brand?
Q:
What is a tagline? Provide an example of a popular tagline, and discuss why you think it has been effective?
Q:
What is the purpose of market segmentation? How are markets typically segmented? Can a company segment its market on more than one dimension?
Q:
A firm's sales process depicts the steps it goes through to identify prospects and close sales.
Q:
Social plugins are tools that Web sites can use to provide users with personalized social experiences.
Q:
Many startups emphasize advertising over public relations primarily because it's cheaper and helps build the firm's credibility.
Q:
The Google AdWords program allows advertisers to buy ads that will be shown on other Web sites instead of Google's Home Page.
Q:
Because of the weaknesses associated with advertising, most startups do not advertise their products broadly.
Q:
In value-based pricing, the list price is determined by estimating what customers are willing to pay for a product and then backing off a bit to provide a cushion.
Q:
Price is the only element in the marketing mix that produces revenue; all other elements represent costs.
Q:
A referent account is an early user of a firm's product who is willing to give a testimonial regarding his or her experience with the product.
Q:
An important distinction should be made between a firm's core product and its actual product. While the core product may be a CD that contains an antivirus software program, the actual product may have a number of characteristics, include a quality level, features, design, a brand name, and packaging.
Q:
A firm's marketing mix is the assortment of products and services that it sells.
Q:
"Brand premium" is the term that denotes the set of assets and liabilities that are linked to a brand and enable it to raise a firm's valuation.
Q:
Creating buzz means creating awareness and a sense of anticipation about a company and its offerings.
Q:
A brand is the set of attributespositive or negativethat people associate with a company.
Q:
A tagline is a catchy phrase that's used consistently in a company's literature, advertisements, and even invoices and thus becomes associated with a companyto reinforce their position in the market.
Q:
A product attribute map illustrated the strength of a firm's niche (or target) market relative to competing markets.
Q:
A firm's "position" is concerned with how it is situated relative to its rivals.
Q:
A niche market is a place within a market segment that represents a narrow group of customers with similar interests.
Q:
Markets can be segmented in a number of ways, including by product type, price point, distribution channel used, and customers served.
Q:
The proper sequence in selecting a target market and positioning strategy is (1) craft a unique positioning strategy, (2) select a target market, and (3) segment the market.
Q:
Which of the following statements is untrue regarding a firm's sales process?
A) A formal sales process helps a firm fine tune its approach to sales and build uniformity into the process.
B) Following a formal or structured process to generate and close sales benefits a firm.
C) A "sales process" is equally valuable whether a firm is selling directly to customers or through intermediaries.
D) A firm's sales process depicts the steps it goes through to identify its target market.
E) A formal sales process involves a number of identifiable steps.
Q:
The first step in the formal sales process described in the book is:
A) qualify the lead
B) make the sales presentation
C) prospect for sales leads
D) meet objections and concerns
E) make the initial contact
Q:
A firm's sales process:
A) is typically not put in place until a year or more after a startup launches
B) describes a firm's branding strategy
C) depicts the steps it goes through to identify prospects and close sales
D) describes its social media strategy
E) depicts the steps it goes through to identify its target market and positioning strategy
Q:
A(n) ________ is a route a product takes from the place it is made to the customer who is the end user.
A) trade channel
B) product channel
C) allotment channel
D) promotion channel
E) distribution channel
Q:
________ marketing is a low-budget approach to marketing that relies on ingenuity, cleverness, and surprise rather than traditional techniques.
A) Rebel
B) Bug
C) Catching
D) Guerrilla
E) Revolutionary
Q:
The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 11 focuses on Moxsie, an online retailer that sells fashion items made by independent designers. Moxsie has accelerated its growth by:A) partnering with an influential Web site and soliciting feedback from customersB) running Google AdSense ads and soliciting feedback from customersC) utilizing viral marketing and putting in place a formal sales processD) utilizing guerrilla marketing techniques and entering into a strategic alliance with GoogleE) co-branding its site with another online retailer and putting a formal sales process in place
Q:
The idea behind blogs is that they:
A) familiarize people with a business and help build an emotional bond between a business and its customers
B) are an effective recruiting tool and they help businesses network with government officials
C) help build an emotional bond between a business and its customers and are an effective platform for product development
D) are an effective tool for product development and familiarize people with a business
E) are an effective tool for recruiting and they familiarize people with a business
Q:
Twitter, Facebook and company blogs are examples of:
A) public media
B) group media
C) shared media
D) social media
E) community media
Q:
Every year thousands of electronic products manufacturers gather in Las Vegas to display their products and to see what their competitors are up to. This type of event is called a:
A) trade show
B) promotions show
C) deal show
D) goods show
E) skill show
Q:
Efforts to establish and maintain a company's image with the public are referred to as:
A) open relations
B) public relations
C) civic relations
D) community relations
E) advertising
Q:
The Google program called ________ allows advertisers to buy keywords on the Google Home Page.
A) AdSense
B) Adcenter
C) AdWords
D) Search Marketing
E) AdGoogle
Q:
________ refers to the activities the firm takes to communicate the merits of its product to its target market.
A) Sponsorship
B) Advertising
C) Endorsement
D) Promotion
E) Price
Q:
Karen Simon recently purchased a digital camera. She considered three cameras, a Kodak that was priced at $139.00, a Panasonic priced at $189.00, and a Nikon priced at $229.00. Karen couldn't tell much difference between the cameras, so she bought the Nikon, figuring that because it was the most expensive of the three, it must be the best. According to the textbook, Karen was making a:
A) price-quality attribution
B) price-merit attribution
C) cost-value acknowledgement
D) cost-worth attribution
E) price-worth acknowledgement
Q:
According to the textbook, most experts recommend ________ pricing because it hinges on the perceived value of a product or service.
A) value-based
B) cost-based
C) competitive-based
D) tactical
E) strategic
Q:
Michael Jones owns a Web design firm. The way Michael prices his products is to determine what consumers are willing to pay, and then he backs off a bit to provide a cushion. The method that Michael used to determine his prices is called:
A) predatory pricing
B) technical pricing
C) cost-based pricing
D) competitive-based pricing
E) value-based pricing
Q:
In ________, the list price is determined by estimating what consumers are willing to pay for a product and then backing off a bit to provide a cushion.
A) value-based pricing
B) tactical pricing
C) strategic pricing
D) cost-based pricing
E) economic-based pricing
Q:
Pat Walker owns an environmental services company. The way Pat prices her services is to figure her cost and then add a 22 percent markup. The method that Pat uses to determine her prices is called:
A) economic-based pricing
B) value-based pricing
C) competitive-based pricing
D) cost-based pricing
E) conformity-based pricing
Q:
In ________, the list price of an item is determined by adding a markup percentage to a product's cost.
A) cost-based pricing
B) compliance-based pricing
C) value-based pricing
D) competitive-based pricing
E) economic-based pricing
Q:
Which element of the marketing mix is the only one that produces revenue?
A) product
B) place (or distribution)
C) advertising
D) price
E) promotion
Q:
The amount of money consumers pay to buy a product is its:
A) price
B) fee
C) value
D) cost
E) charge
Q:
Before Kim Green opened her jiffy print store, she processed several large print jobs for local merchants for free, to demonstrate the quality of her service and to solicit feedback. Two of the merchants wrote favorable reviews of Kim's service, and agreed to let Kim post the reviews on her company's Web site. The companies that wrote the favorable reviews are referred to as:
A) appreciation reports
B) acknowledgement accounts
C) referent accounts
D) tribute reports
E) approval reports