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Q:
Find the value that correctly completes the ordered pair, (2,__) for the equation.
Q:
Determine whether the ordered pair, (-3,-5), satisfies the equation.A) NoB) Yes
Q:
Which one of the following ordered pairs that satisfy the equation.A) (1,9)B) (-3,1)C) (3,-11)D) (-2,-3)
Q:
Select all of the following ordered pairs that satisfy the equation. A) (-5,7)B) (2,-1)C) (-2,-5)D) (-3,-3)E) (4,1)
Q:
The following graph shows the results from 2,000 teenagers (ages 13 - 17) in the U.S. that were randomly selected and asked about the time they spent exercising each week. What percentage of 13 - 17 year old males exercise 3 hours or less per week?
Q:
The following graph shows the results from 2,000 teenagers (ages 13 - 17) in the U.S. that were randomly selected and asked about the time they spent exercising each week. What percentage of 13 - 17 year old females exercise more than 5 hours per week?
Q:
The following graph shows the results from 2,000 teenagers (ages 13 - 17) in the U.S. that were randomly selected and asked about the time they spent exercising each week. What percentage of 13 - 17 year old males exercise more than 2 hours per week?
Q:
Which of the following CANNOT be the mean of the data set represented in the following histogram. A) 6.7
B) 7
C) 7.6
D) 6
Q:
The histogram below was created use the ages of members of a certain family. Find the relative frequency of the family members in the 31-40 age range. A) 3.125%
B) 1
C) 1%
D) 35
Q:
Use the bar chart below to find the mean of the data set, rounded to 2 decimal places if necessary. A) 5
B) 4.12
C) 4
D) 5.6
E) 4.87
Q:
Use the bar chart below to find the mean of the data set. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
The bar chart below was created using the number of children of each of the last 20 U.S. Presidents. Find the relative frequency of presidents who had 1 children.
A) 10%
B) 2
C) 1
D) 20%
Q:
The bar chart below was created using the number of children of each of the last 20 U.S. Presidents. Find the relative frequency of presidents who had 3 children.
Q:
Two friends, Alfredo and Bob, are playing golf. Although they are about the same at driving the ball onto the green, Al is better at putting. On the 9th hole, Bob makes a 5 and Al hits into the lake and then gets stuck in a sand trap. By the time he gets to the green and makes it to the hole, his score is 12. Here are the scores for the 9 holes: Hole
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Total Al
5
4
6
4
4
3
4
3
12
45 Bob
6
5
7
5
4
3
5
4
5
44 Find each of the following (if necessary, round to 2 decimal places):
A) Al's mean
B) Al's median
C) Bob's mean
D) Bob' median
E) Who is the better golfer "on average"? (Explain your answer.)
Q:
Below is age data from a University of Massachusetts college algebra class. Age
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45 Frequency
2
3
4
2
4
1
1
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
2
1
1
0
1
0
1
1
0
0
0
1
0 0
Which is the relative frequency of students whose ages are in the interval from 18-20? (rounded to 2 decimal places)
A) 30
B) 3.33
C) 0.30
D) 0.17
Q:
The table shows starting salaries from a survey of recent college graduates: Salary (in thousands)
Number of graduates 11-15
3 16-20
3 21-25
12 26-30
16 31-35
8 36-40
5 Answer each question:
What is the relative frequency of a graduate having a salary between $36,000 and $40,000?
Round your answer to 2 decimal places, if necessary.
A) 0.34
B) 5
C) 0.11
D) 0.26
Q:
The table shows starting salaries from a survey of recent college graduates: Salary (in thousands)
Number of graduates 11-15
1 16-20
6 21-25
14 26-30
23 31-35
11 36-40
4 Answer each question:
What is the relative frequency of a graduate having a salary between $16,000 and $20,000?
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
The table shows starting salaries from a survey of recent college graduates: Salary (in thousands)
Number of graduates 11-15
3 16-20
5 21-25
14 26-30
26 31-35
6 36-40
2 Answer each question:
A) How many students were surveyed?
B) What is the relative frequency of a graduate having a salary between $11,000 and $15,000?
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
For the following data:
64, 63, 72, 75, 62, 74, 62, 64, 77, 72, 76, 13, 58, 72, 70, 59, 72, 67
Calculate
A) the mean (Round to 2 decimal places.),
B) the median, and
C) then identify any number that should be considered an outlier.
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
For the following data:
68, 67, 75, 78, 66, 77, 66, 68, 80, 75, 79, 11, 62, 75, 73, 63, 75, 71
Calculate
A) the mean (Round to 2 decimal places.),
B) the median, and
C) then identify any number that should be considered an outlier.
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
For the following data:
76, 74, 92, 86, 81, 84, 88, 78, 81, 77, 94, 16, 86, 81, 89, 80, 75, 84, 93, 90, 88, 91, 81, 76, 92
Which of the following should be considered an outlier?
A) 84
B) 81
C) 80.92
D) 16
Q:
For the following data:
51, 47, 63, 59, 54, 57, 61, 51, 54, 50, 65, 54, 59, 15, 62, 53, 50, 57, 64, 63, 61, 62, 54, 51, 65
Which of the following is the median?
A) 54
B) 55.28
C) 1,372
D) 57
Q:
For the following data:
61, 59, 77, 71, 66, 69, 73, 63, 66, 62, 79, 66, 71, 16, 74, 65, 60, 69, 78, 75, 73, 76, 66, 61, 77
Calculate
A) the mean (round to 2 decimal places),
B) the median, and
C) then identify any number that should be considered an outlier.
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
The 2006 graduates of Bottom Line University all got great jobs. Their starting annual salaries are:
$32,000; $50,000; $54,000; $60,000; $46,000; $46,000; $37,000; $53,000; $51,000; and $2.5 million
(At 6'10'' "Hoops" Johnson is playing professional basketball.)
Which of the mean or median is a better indication of what their graduates typically make?
A) mean
B) median
Q:
The 1999 graduates of Bottom Line University all got great jobs. Their starting annual salaries are:
$36,000; $32,000; $42,000; $41,000; $40,000; $38,000; $60,000; $43,000; $52,000; and $2.3 million
(At 6'10'' "Hoops" Johnson is playing professional basketball.)
A) A headline in the alumni newsletter boasts "'1999 Graduates Highest Paid Yet. Salaries Average $_________" (Complete the headline.)
B) Is the mean or the median a better indication of what the graduates are typically making?
Q:
The frequency table below describes the age distribution of students in a college algebra class. Based on this information, estimate the largest possible value for the mean age of this class. Age
Frequency 16-17
2 18-19
13 20-21
6 22-23
1 24-25
2 Total
24 Which of the following is the largest possible mean?
Round your answers to 2 decimals if necessary.
A) 19.00
B) 20.00
C) 19.5
D) 18.5
Q:
The frequency table below describes the age distribution of students in a college algebra class. Based on this information, estimate the smallest possible value for the mean age of this class. Age
Frequency 16-17
2 18-19
14 20-21
7 22-23
3 24-25
4 Total
30 Which of the following is the smallest possible mean?
Round your answers to 2 decimals if necessary.
A) 19.53
B) 20.53
C) 20.03
D) 18.5
Q:
The frequency table below describes the age distribution of students in a college algebra class. Based on this information, estimate the largest and smallest possible values for the mean age of this class. Age
Frequency 16-17
2 18-19
14 20-21
8 22-23
2 24-25
3 Total
29 A) Find the smallest possible mean
and
B) the largest possible mean.
Round your answers to 2 decimals if necessary.
Q:
In a group of seven people the heights, in inches, of six are know to be 72, 69, 65, 67, 72, and 61.
If the median height of all seven people is 67, then what must the seventh (from largest to smallest) height be?
A) 67 or less
B) 67 or greater
C) 67
D) 70
Q:
In a group of seven people the heights, in inches, of six are known to be 66, 61, 69, 69, 63, and 68. If the mean height of all seven people is 65, then what must the seventh height be?
Q:
On a recent test in a College Algebra class the following scores were recorded: 71
63
70
70
80
70
63 71
65
52
65
72
67
65 52
64
79
74
65
36
77 Find each of the following:
A) the mean
and
B) the median
If necessary, round answers to 2 decimal places.
Q:
Find each of the following for the set of data: 20, 17, 21, 23, 19, 23, 25
A) the mean
and
B) the median.
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
Here are the number of home runs that Babe Ruth hit in each of his 15 years with the New York Yankees, 1920 to 1934.
54, 59, 35, 41, 46, 25, 47, 60, 54, 46, 49, 46, 41, 34, 22
Calculate the each of the following for this data.
a.) the mean
and
b.) the median.
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
Find the median of the data set below.
39, 71, 59, 42, 22, 66, 51, 75, 35, 68
A) 55
B) 52.8
C) 51
D) 59
Q:
Find the median of the data set below.
28, 60, 46, 31, 13, 55, 40, 64, 24, 57
Q:
Find the median of the data set below.
44, 80, 65, 52, 35, 75, 53, 84, 44, 60, 79
A) 75
B) 61.00
C) 60
D) 53
Q:
Find the median of the data set below.
28, 64, 37, 36, 19, 59, 44, 68, 28, 49, 63
Q:
Find the mean of the data set below.
37, 69, 52, 40, 25, 64, 49, 73, 33, 66
A) 50.5
B) 49
C) 64
D) 50.8
Q:
Find the mean of the data set below.
43, 34, 46, 38, 43, 37, 42, 23, 27, 40, 43, 21
Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Q:
Jeremy has instructed his accountant to split a $12,000 deposit to his retirement account into the investments as shown in the pie chart. What percent of his investment was allocated to global equities?
Q:
Jeremy has instructed his accountant to split any deposits into his retirement account into the investments as shown in the pie chart. If Jeremy's accountant allocates $4,200 to global equities, how much was his investment into his retirement account?
Q:
Jeremy has instructed his accountant to split any deposits into his retirement account into the investments as shown in the pie chart. If Jeremy deposits $11,000 into his retirement account, how much will his accountant allocate to bonds?
Q:
Below is a pie chart of the sources of points in a College Algebra class. According to the chart, what is the smallest source of points in the class?
A) Tests
B) Final
C) Projects
D) HW
Q:
Below is a pie chart of the sources of points in a College Algebra class. According to the chart, what is the smallest source of points in the class?
Q:
The discovery that the universe appears to be expanding led to a widely accepted theory called ________.
A) the Big Bang
B) Hubble's Law
C) Einstein's Law
D) the Doppler effect
Q:
Slipher made the observation that galaxies rotated and moved relative to each other. Hubble expanded on this work to show that ________.
A) the rates of rotation varied within galaxies
B) the relative motion between adjacent galaxies varies
C) galaxies within the Local Group rotate more than other galaxies
D) galaxies within the Local Group rotate less than other galaxies
E) all galaxies except those in the Local Group are moving away from the Milky Way
Q:
Which one of the objects listed below has the largest size?
A) galactic clusters
B) globular clusters
C) galaxies
D) stars
E) nebula
Q:
How do astronomers believe an irregular galaxy forms?
A) Several regular galaxies of different sizes merge.
B) They form when an elliptical and a spiral galaxy merge.
C) They are regular galaxies that are distorted by the gravity field of a large nearby galaxy.
D) They are two or more galaxies that have not completed their merger.
E) They are young galaxies that have not yet developed a more regular form.
Q:
The largest known galaxies are ________.
A) spiral
B) barred spiral
C) elliptical
D) irregular
E) round
Q:
Spiral galaxies tend to resemble a pinwheel because ________.
A) stars in the center of the galaxy are moving faster than the ones on the outer edges
B) stars are moving from the center to the edges of the galaxy
C) the barred structures form twisted pathways that distort the flow patterns
D) the stars in the center are very old and large while the outer edges of the galaxy contain the youngest and smallest stars
E) stars in the center of galaxy are moving more slowly than the ones on the outer edges.
Q:
What is the main factor that determines what will happen to a star after it consumes all of its nuclear fuel?
A) temperature
B) size
C) mass
D) velocity
E) composition
Q:
Degenerate matter can have densities 1 million times greater than the density of water, and they achieve this density by ________.
A) fusing all of their atoms into super atoms with very high atomic numbers
B) compressing all of the electrons so that they are close to the nucleus
C) forming ions that bond electrostatically so that there volume is very small
D) converting the atomic nucleus to a small volume with high mass by expelling all neutrons
Q:
A neutron star theoretically will form from a supernovae collapse that ________.
A) fuses all of the atoms into super atoms with very high atomic numbers
B) compresses all atoms so that electrons are so close to the nucleus that all of the protons are converted to neutrons
C) forms ions that bond electrostatically into very small volumes
D) converts the atomic nucleus to a small volume with high mass by expelling all neutrons
Q:
The point in stellar evolution when a star has used up all its fuel and is radiating away its remaining thermal energy as light is the ________ stage.
A) black hole
B) main-sequence star
C) red giant
D) white dwarf
Q:
The final stage for a star which is as massive as the Sun is a ________.
A) black hole
B) main-sequence star
C) red giant
D) white dwarf
Q:
The temperature of a red giant increases rapidly because ________.
A) exothermic chemical reactions occur
B) endothermic chemical reactions occur
C) fusion increases and gives off heat
D) gravitational energy is converted to heat
E) friction from the collapse creates heat
Q:
A red giant has ________.
A) a hydrogen-rich core
B) a helium-rich core
C) an iron-rich core
D) no outer shell
E) high gas pressure
Q:
A main-sequence star like our sun is expected to be stable for approximately ________.
A) 100 billion years
B) 10 billion years
C) 1 billion years
D) 100 million years
E) 10 million years
Q:
Balance for a main sequence star is achieved when ________.
A) nuclear fusion and fission occur at the same rate
B) gas pressure matches temperature
C) temperature matches the rate of nuclear fusion
D) gravitational collapse matches gas pressure
E) all of the above
Q:
What is the dominant factor in the life of a star?
A) temperature
B) size
C) gravity
D) energy
E) composition
Q:
Prior to the formation of the protostar, ________.
A) the interstellar clouds are composed of equal amounts of hydrogen and helium
B) the temperature of the cloud is greater than 10,000 K
C) nuclear fusion converts hydrogen to helium
D) nuclear fusion does not occur
Q:
Which of the following is not true of first generation stars?
A) They are very dense.
B) They are massive.
C) They are composed primarily of hydrogen.
D) They are short-lived.
E) They have violent, explosive deaths.
Q:
The first stars formed about 300 million years after Big Bang in the most massive nebulae because ________.
A) only the massive nebulae had the material needed to make stars
B) it took that long for enough matter to form to make a star
C) the massive nebulae had enough gravity to attract star material early in the history of the universe
D) the massive nebulae had enough gravity to collapse and condense
E) all of the nebulae at that time were massive and it was not until much later that smaller nebulae formed
Q:
A star with the same color as another but 100 times brighter must be ________.
A) 100 times hotter
B) 100 times larger
C) 100 times closer
D) 100 times colder
E) none of the above
Q:
On a Hertzprung-Russell Diagram, our Sun is classified as ________.
A) a yellow giant
B) a yellow dwarf
C) a mediocre star
D) a super star
E) an average star
Q:
Most stars are in this stage of evolution.
A) black hole
B) main-sequence star
C) red giant
D) white dwarf
Q:
The Sun belongs to this class of stars.
A) black hole
B) main-sequence star
C) red giant
D) white dwarf
Q:
What is a "main sequence star"?
A) a star that is aligned with many other, similar colored stars
B) a star that is in a group of stars with similar ages and sizes
C) a star that falls in a band in a band on the H-R Diagram with most other stars
D) a star that is statistically indistinguishable from 90% of all stars
E) a star that shows the same trend in distance from earth and temperature as many other stars
Q:
A blue star is ________ our Sun.
A) hotter and smaller than
B) hotter and larger than
C) colder and larger than
D) colder and smaller than
E) approximately the same temperature and size as
Q:
A red star is ________ our Sun.
A) hotter and smaller than
B) hotter and larger than
C) colder and larger than
D) colder and smaller than
E) approximately the same temperature and size as
Q:
A Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (H-R Diagram) is a plot of ________.
A) size versus brightness
B) size versus color
C) color versus brightness
D) brightness versus temperature
E) temperature versus color
Q:
The densest stars known to exist are ________.
A) black holes
B) neutron stars
C) white dwarfs
D) red dwarfs
Q:
Which main-sequence stars are the least massive?
A) red
B) orange
C) yellow
D) blue
Q:
Which main-sequence stars are the most massive?
A) red
B) orange
C) yellow
D) blue
Q:
Which color stars have the coolest surface temperature?
A) red
B) orange
C) yellow
D) blue
Q:
Which color stars have the highest surface temperature?
A) red
B) orange
C) yellow
D) blue
Q:
When viewed through an optical telescope, planetary nebula ________.
A) look like giant planets such as Jupiter
B) have visible planets within their cloud of debris
C) show the explosive form of the dead sun
D) still have planets orbiting the cloud
E) are spherical in form and often have "rings" like Saturn
Q:
The reason scientists believe the reflective bright nebulae contain more heavy materials than the emission bright nebulae is that ________.
A) they reflect more colors than the emission nebulae
B) they glow brighter than an energy emission source could produce
C) they are brighter than a low density source could produce
D) they are dimmer than a low density source could produce
E) they are blue, and that color is associated with carbon
Q:
The red color of emission nebulae comes from the ________.
A) conversion of infrared light to visible light
B) conversion of ultraviolet light to visible light
C) energy emission of hydrogen
D) energy emission of helium
E) energy emission of oxygen
Q:
Fluorescence is a characteristic of ________.
A) emission nebulae
B) dark nebulae
C) planetary nebulae
D) reflection nebulae
E) blue nebulae