Q&A Hero

Q: The Critical Legal Studies School of jurisprudence believes: A) law is shaped by logic. B) laws are based on standards of what is and is not correct. C) legal rules are unnecessary. D) laws reflect an effort to perpetuate oppression and social inequalities. E) law is a combination of social transactions.

Q: The Sex Offender Registry is an ex post facto law.

Q: Which is not an insanity defense? A) M'Naghten Rule B) Guilty but Mentally Ill Rule C) Heat of Passion Rule D) Durham Test E) Irresistible Impulse Rule

Q: Which of the following statements are true concerning minimum mandatory sentences for armed robbery? a. A defendant convicted of carrying a weapon during a robbery will receive a minimum of five years in prison. b. A defendant convicted of brandishing a weapon during a robbery will receive a minimum sentence of seven years in prison. c. A defendant convicted of discharging a weapon during a robbery will receive a minimum of ten years in prison. d. A defendant can be convicted of discharging a weapon during a robbery, even if the discharge was accidental. e. all of the above

Q: The Natural Law School of jurisprudence believes: A) laws reflect an effort to perpetuate oppression and social inequalities. B) law is shaped by logic. C) legal rules are unnecessary. D) laws are based on standards of what is and is not correct. E) law is a combination of social transactions.

Q: All defendants are entitled to a discretionary appeal.

Q: What should the punishment be for technicians who provide false information which leads to the conviction of a factually innocent defendant?

Q: An assailant attacks the victim with a knife and stabs her in the arm, then runs away. The assailant most likely will be charged with: a. simple assault. b. aggravated assault. c. assault with intent to kill. d. assault and battery. e. none of the above

Q: Feminist-Critical Legal Theory: A) argues that women should be given lighter prison sentences than men to reflect that disproportionate amount of discrimination against women in society. B) argues that laws made by women would lead to fewer incidences of violence, war, and famine. C) was founded by Gloria Steinem. D) takes the perspectives of women into account when developing, interpreting, and applying the law. E) was illegal in the U.S. until the early 20th century.

Q: Any error brought to light in an appeal will lead to a new trial or overturning of the underlying conviction.

Q: You represent a client accused of rape and murder. The prosecution experts have presented DNA evidence from the crime scene tying your client to the victim. What options should you explore for defending your client?

Q: Which of the following are examples of robbery? a. A person breaks into a house when the owner is not home and steals jewelry. b. A mugger grabs a person by the jacket collar and demands money. c. A pickpocket takes a wallet without the victim discovering it until an hour later. d. A cyber thief hacks into a bank account and extracts money. e. None of the above.

Q: The "three strikes and you"re out" policy has been held to be unconstitutional.

Q: Using the Alcee Hastings case as an example, explain the concept of impeachment.

Q: Which of the following governmental agencies does NOT have a legitimate right to investigate domestic cyber crime? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) b. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) c. National Security Agency (NSA) d. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms (ATF) e. Department of Agriculture.

Q: Jurisprudence: A) provides the rationale for every law ever enacted. B) contains all the wisdom of the ages. C) is interpreted by different schools of jurisprudence. D) is viewed the same way by everyone. E) all of the above

Q: Espionage can be a capital offense.

Q: You read about the case of "Scooter" Libby, who was convicted of obstruction of justice and perjury, but had his sentence commuted by President George W. Bush before he had to serve any of the 30 months in prison the judge sentenced him to serve. Should he have served the sentence?

Q: Jeremy Jones is learning disabled. Ruth Less attacks him one day with a baseball bat calling him a "retard". If a jury decides Ms. Less' actions were motivated by her prejudice against mentally challenged people, what would be the most likely result? a. She would be convicted of assault and receive the appropriate sentence for assault. b. She would be put on probation and given sensitivity training so she would be nicer to mentally challenged people in the future. c. She would be convicted of a hate crime and have her sentence enhanced beyond what it would be simply for an assault. d. She would be given the death penalty for committing a hate crime. e. None of the Above.

Q: Jurisprudence is: A) the doctrine that makes lawyers cautious. B) the study of law. C) the concept that the Constitution functions to limit government action. D) the doctrine that requires judges to follow legal precedents. E) all of the above

Q: Offenders can receive enhanced sentences if enough mitigating factors are involved.

Q: Should the government run "sting operations" where they offer bribes to politicians? Is this entrapment? Is this creating crime where none existed?

Q: You are investigating a crime. You discover that Joe Smith poured gasoline on the corner of his neighbor's barn while the neighbor was inside, and lit it. The neighbor's son saw the flames and doused them before they engulfed the barn. No one was injured. Your investigation also reveals that Joe Smith and his neighbor had recently argued. With what crime can you charge Joe Smith? a. No crime because there was no harm. b. Property arson because no people were harmed only property. c. Attempted property arson d. Attempted violent arson because he intended to hurt his neighbor. e. Violent arson because he intended to hurt his neighbor and setting the fire is the act of arson.

Q: Stare Decisis means: A) to stare at the decision. B) a decision rendered in the star chamber. C) to stand by the decision. D) to look to the stars for wisdom when making a decision. E) none of the Above.

Q: Very often an offender will receive a suspended sentence for a first offense.

Q: The indictment of a public official that leads to a trial to determine whether he or she should be removed from office is _____________.

Q: Which of the following are true about the Common Law concepts of assault and battery? a. The assailant must touch the victim for assault to occur. b. The attacker must harm the victim for assault to occur. c. The attacker must take an action that threatens to harm the victim for assault to occur. d. Battery only occurs if the victim is physically harmed. e. C and D only.

Q: Adhering to judicial precedent is known as: A) stare decisis. B) quid pro quo. C) caveat emptor. D) quid est timit lupum mallum. E) res ipsa loquitur.

Q: The Constitution's ban on cruel and unusual punishments is based on the Magna Carta.

Q: _____________ is the main federal law that enables the government to prosecute individuals and organizations for a pattern of criminal activity.

Q: Which of the following are true statements? a. Any time something is stolen in the presence of the owner, it is a robbery. b. To prove robbery charges, the prosecutor must show the defendant took the property by force or the threat of force. c. To prove theft charges, the prosecutor must show the defendant took the property by force or the threat of force. d. To prove robbery charges, the prosecutor must show the defendant took the property while in the presence of its owner. e. B and D only.

Q: Common law was developed so: A) commoners in England would have laws for themselves. B) the law would be common to all persons. C) the law would be common to all areas of the English Empire. D) B and C. E) None of the above.

Q: If conditions in prison can lead to serious illness or injury, if they are "wanton and unnecessary infliction of pain," then the conditions violate the Eighth Amendment.

Q: _________ is the crime of giving something of value with the intention of influencing the action of a public official.

Q: Which of the following is true concerning video surveillance? a. It is legal because individuals have no reasonable expectation of privacy in public places. b. Police may only turn on video camera if they have a reasonable expectation that a crime will occur. c. Police must get a warrant in all cases to obtain privately-owned surveillance tape from ATMs or private security systems. d. Video surveillance evidence may only be presented in court if every person in the video gives consent. e. Video surveillance does nothing to deter crime.

Q: Common law owes its origination to what nation? A) United States of America B) Luxembourg C) Germany D) France E) England

Q: Rape is not a capital offense.

Q: Conduct that diminishes the dignity, effectiveness and efficiency of the judicial process is ___________________.

Q: Which of the following are examples of trafficking in persons? a. Sex trafficking b. Labor trafficking c. Drug trafficking d. A and B only. e. all of the above

Q: Law is: A) a set of rules governing behavior. B) a set of punishments for those who break society's rules. C) a set of universal rules that apply to every society in every era. D) A and C. E) A and B.

Q: In the case Atkins v. Virginia, the Supreme Court found that contemporary standards of what is appropriate have changed, and that mentally retarded people may still be executed if found guilty of a capital crime.

Q: A person who impedes or hinders the administration of justice in any way is guilty of _______________.

Q: Which of the following is true concerning kidnapping and abduction? a. They are two names for the same crime. b. Kidnapping involves a request for ransom and abduction does not. c. Abduction refers only to removal of children by non-custodial parents. d. Kidnapping is the crime of taking and detaining a person against his will by force, intimidation, or fraud. e. Alien abductions are prosecuted in intergalactic courts.

Q: In order for something to be law, it must: A) make sense. B) have the approval of the citizens. C) be obeyed. D) be created by a government. E) all of the above

Q: The government can forcibly medicate a person so that person will be competent to stand trial if such treatment is medically appropriate, is unlikely to have side effects that may undermine the trial's fairness, and is necessary to further important governmental trial-related interests, taking into account any possible less intrusive measures.

Q: ________________ is an illegal attempt to influence a witness' sworn testimony.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of a cyber crime? a. Sending an e-mail offering to sell male enhancement drugs with the sole purpose of obtaining credit card numbers. b. Sending an e-mail advocating killing members of a certain race. c. Sending an e-mail advocating worldwide jihad. d. Sending an e-mail containing a picture of the president with a "Hitler-style" mustache exhorting voters to vote against him in the next election. e. Sending an e-mail offering quick money for people willing to kill to earn it.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Indeterminate sentencinga. The sentencing scheme using a sentencing range where the prisoner can earn release after serving the minimum sentence by meeting certain rehabilitation goals.2. Indefinite sentencingb. Act or conduct that increases the seriousness of an act.3. Definite sentencesc. Monetary penalties paid to the state as punishment for crime.4. Mandatory minimum sentencesd. Fixed term sentences selected from a range determined by statute or guidelines where there is no chance of parole.5. Enhanced sentencese. Act or conduct that lessens or reduces the punishment for a crime.6. Finesf. Money paid to crime victims to help make them whole.7. Restitutiong. The shortest possible sentence for a given crime under an indeterminate sentencing scheme.8. Per seh. The sentencing scheme where judges have the most flexibility in sentencing.9. Aggravating circumstancei. Latin; by itself, in and of itself.10. Mitigating circumstancej. Sentences lengthened by aggravating factors such as for hate crimes.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Grand jurya. A formal request to change the trial's location.2. Petit juryb. A formal investigation conducted before the trial by both parties.3. Probable causec. The document produced by a grand jury when it is convinced the prosecutor's evidence is sufficient to charge the accused with a crime.4. True Billd. A body of members from the community, which decides whether enough evidence exists to indict an individual.5. Indictment.e. Evidence that casts doubt on the defendant's guilt.6. Quashf. A grand jury's action to bring charges against an individual.7. Discoveryg. A trial jury.8. Exculpatory evidenceh. Formal requests that a judge enter a particular order prior to the star of a trial.9. Pretrial motionsi. To annul10. Motion to change venuej. The standard of proof used to determine if a person should be charged with a crime.

Q: MATCHING.COLUMN 1COLUMN 21. marital privilegea. The right of confidentiality accorded members of the clergy for conversations held during the ritual of confession.2. quashb. The state of being detained by law enforcement officers.3. priest-penitent privilegec. Latin for "I will not contest this", a plea entered that admits no wrongdoing, but allows the court to sentence the defendant as if guilty.4. patient-counselor privileged. The right of confidentiality accorded counselors for conversations held in the course of mental health treatment.5. plea bargaininge. The right of a person to refuse to testify against his or her spouse.6. Bench conferencef. A plea entered where the accused maintains his innocence, but agrees to be sentenced as if guilty.7. nolo contendereg. The process of negotiating the settlement of criminal charges without a trial.8. Alford pleah. to annul9. arresti. The official taking of a person to answer criminal charges.10. custodyj. A conference called among the judge and attorneys for both sides, and possibly the accused to discuss matters without the jury hearing it.

Q: MATCHING.COLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Self-incriminationa. Evidence that will change or evaporate in a manner that will destroy its evidentiary value.2. Bailb. An exception to the warrant to search requirement which says that consent to enter given to an undercover police officer or informant transfers to others in the police force who may then enter without a warrant.3. Consent once removedc. The act of admitting guilt to a crime.4. Exigent circumstancesd. The "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine that prohibits the admission of evidence obtained illegally at a defendant's criminal trial.5. Stop and friske. Situations that require urgent action, sufficient to excuse delay to get a warrant.6. Evanescent evidencef. The act of giving testimony against one's penal interest.7. Exclusionary ruleg. The right not to testify against their own interests when accused of a crime.8. Right to Remain Silenth. Police officers may briefly stop, identify, and frisk persons reasonably believed to have committed a crime during the course of an investigation.9. Rebuttable presumptioni. Money or other guarantee posted to assure a defendant who is released form custody pending trial or appeal will appear when called or forfeit the security posted.10. Confessionj. A presumption that can be overcome by presenting evidence to the contrary

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Consent defensea. States that the defendant lacked the mental state to understand the nature and consequences of the crime.2. Entrapmentb. The defense that a child is too young to either be prosecuted or stand trial as an adult.3. Subjective standard (majority rule) for entrapmentc. Asks the question, "Was the defendant predisposed to commit the crime?"4. Objective standard (minority rule) for entrapmentd. Holds that a defendant "is presumed to be sane and possess a sufficient degree of reason to be responsible for his crimes, until the contrary be proved to the jury's satisfaction" beyond a reasonable doubt.5. Legal trapse. The condition of a person who unknowingly ingests an intoxicating substance.6. Infancy defensef. Asks the question, "Would an innocent person be induced to commit the crime by the officer's acts?"7. Involuntary intoxicationg. The defense that the defendant had the victim's consent to perform the acts.8. Voluntary intoxicationh. The condition where a person knowingly ingests an intoxicating substance.9. Insanity defensei. Techniques used by law enforcement to catch criminal activity that fell short of entrapment.10. M"Naghten rulej. A defense used when law enforcement officials lure a person into committing a crime.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Tax evasiona. Giving false testimony to a material fact under oath.2. Mail fraudb. Conduct that diminishes the dignity, effectiveness, and efficiency of the judicial system.3. Perjuryc. A situation where a grand jury subpoenas a witness for the sole purpose of obtaining perjured testimony.4. Subornation of perjuryd. Convincing or seeking to convince another person to commit perjury.5. Two witness rulee. An attempt to defeat or avoid paying a tax.6. Recantationf. An illegal attempt to influence a witness' sworn testimony.7. Perjury Trapg. Common Law rule that requires two witnesses to another's perjury for conviction.8. Witness tamperingh. Using the U.S. Postal Service in furtherance of a fraudulent scheme.9. Obstruction of Justicei. The crime of impeding or hindering the administration of justice in any way.10. Contemptj. The retraction of testimony

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Terrorisma. A writ ordering a person to be brought to court.2. Power to declare warb. The unlawful use or threat of violence, especially against the state or the public, as a politically motivated means of attack or coercion.3. Letters of marque and reprisalc. The federal law regulating the government's actions when collecting intelligence from foreign governments and their agents.4. Habeas corpusd. A military court convened to try those accused of war-related crimes.5. Military tribunale. The power reserved to Congress in the Constitution to declare war on a belligerent.6. Material witnessf. The legal right of a person or group to challenge the conduct of another in a judicial forum.7. Treasong. A person whose testimony is material to a criminal proceeding.8. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Acth. A government letter granting a private person the power to seize subjects of a foreign state.9. Standingi. A conspiracy to overthrow the government, or levy war against them, or oppose the government's authority.10. Seditionj. Levying war against the United States or adhering to their enemies.

Q: Treason requires a special standard of proof, including either a confession in open court or the testimony of two persons to an overt treasonous act.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Violence Against Women Acta. The engaging of a child in sexual activities for which the child cannot give informed consent.2. Child molestationb. Sexual intercourse by a married person with someone not his or her spouse.3. Elder Abuse Syndromec. Loitering with the intent of committing an illegal act.4. Fighting wordsd. The condition elderly abuse victims sometimes exhibit characterized by "learned helplessness."5. Public indecencye. The criminal act of marrying when one already has a spouse.6. Vagrancyf. The primary attempt by the federal government to address domestic violence.7. Fornicationg. Words that inflict injury, tend to incite an immediate breach of the peace, or by their nature will cause a violent reaction by a person who hears them.8. Adulteryh. Voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons.9. Bigamyi. The termination of pregnancy by something other than birth.10. Abortionj. Lewd or lascivious conduct that is open to public view.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Propertya. Ownership form where the joint tenant receives the property should the other die.2. Real Propertyb. The state's power to take private property for a public purpose without the owner's consent.3. Personal Propertyc. Joint ownership form in which each owns an undivided interest in the whole property.4. Eminent Domaind. All property other than real property.5. Fee Simplee. Joint ownership form where spouses own an undivided interest in the whole and neither can sell interest in the property without the other's permission.6. Leasehold rightsf. Land and everything permanently attached to it.7. Lieng. A creditor's claim against a particular property as collateral for a debt.8. Tenancy by the entiretyh. A bundle of rights including the right to possess, use and enjoy, and dispose of something.9. Tenants in commoni. The rights a real property tenant possesses through agreement with the property owner.10. Joint Tenants with the right of survivorship.j. The legal term for ownership of the entire bundle of rights that go with a property.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Assaulta. An act of force or threat of force intended to inflict harm upon a person.2. Simple Assaultb. The illegal carrying away of a person by force or coercion, generally with the intent to do harm to the victim.3. Aggravated Assaultc. Using the threat of force to intimidate or threaten a person in the exercise of that person's rights because of that person's race, color, religions, ancestry, national origin, disability, gender, or sexual orientation.4. Arsond. The willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn a building.5. Hate Crimese. A physical attack where the victim suffers no obvious injuries and the attacker does not have a weapon.6. Hate Speechf. Offenses motivated by hatred against a victim based on his or her race, religion, sexual orientation, handicap, ethnicity, or national origin.7. Abductiong. An attack made with the intent of inflicting severe bodily injury.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Armed robberya. A theft made by force or threat of force where no weapon was used.2. Simple Robberyb. A theft committed by force or threat of force by a person or persons carrying a weapon.3. Robberyc. A theft made by force of threat of force.Choices B and C appear to be the same, what is difference between "committed by" and "made by"?

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Forcible fondlinga. Oral or anal intercourse with another person against that person's will.2. Forcible Sodomyb. A defense where the perpetrator believed the victim was older than she was.3. Sexual Assault with an objectc. The unlawful use of an instrument to penetrate the genital or anal opening of a person against the person's will.4. Incestd. Sexual intercourse with someone unable to consent to the act.5. Statutory Rapee. The involuntary touching of another person's body parts for the purpose of sexual gratification.6. Mistake of age defensef. Sexual activity between close relatives.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Marital rapea. The carnal knowledge of a person against that person's will.2. Indecent assaultb. Voluntary agreement by a competent person to another person's proposition.3. Consentc. An attack on a person in which there is groping or other offensive touching.4. Forcible Raped. The rape of one's wife.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Felony murdera. The crime of causing a death by negligent or reckless behavior.2. Voluntary manslaughterb. A death caused by a driver's negligence.3. Involuntary manslaughterc. A homicide committed with the intent to kill, but without deliberation, premeditation, or malice.4. Homicide by vehicled. The charge when the defendant is alleged to have committed a crime resulting in a person's death.5. Criminal negligence manslaughtere. A defendant's plan to injure another person.6. Unlawful act manslaughterf. A death committed by accident or chance during the commission of a felony.7. Intent to do serious bodily harmg. The unintentional killing of a human being by a person engaging in illegal, but not felonious, or reckless behavior.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Corpus dilectia. Use of a deadly weapon is proof of intent to kill.2. Circumstantial evidenceb. A defendant's plan to injure another.3. Direct evidencec. The plan, course or means a person conceives to take another's life.4. Intent to killd. The deliberate commission of a dangerous or deadly act.5. Malice aforethoughte. The fact that a crime has been committed.6. Deadly weapon doctrinef. Real, tangible, or clear evidence of a fact or occurrence.7. Intent to do serious bodily harmg. Evidence that proves a fact by inference.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Subjective intenta. The concept that some actions are so likely to cause a specific result, that the law treats that result as intended.2. Objective intentb. Intent where the person intended the action only and not the result.3. Specific intentc. What a reasonable person should have known or thought at the time of the event.4. General intentd. The offender's conscious intentions at the time of the crime.5. Transferred intente. The type of intent where the person commits an act designed to cause a specific criminal result.6. Constructive intentf. The type of intent where a person intends to harm one person and harms another in the process.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Strict liabilitya. The liability that those in loco parentis have for their charges.2. Vicarious liabilityb. Liability that one person has for another.3. Corporate liabilityc. Liability for harm even if the person is not at fault or negligent.4. Parental liabilityd. Liability that employees incur for their employers.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Attorneysa. Legal professionals who monitor and counsel offenders during the offender's time on parole or probation.2. Judgesb. Lawyers who typically have been elected to try criminal cases on behalf of the people.3. Minor Judiciaryc. Legal professionals who assist attorneys and others involved in the legal system.4. District or Prosecuting Attorneyd. Magistrates, justices of the peace, municipal judges or similar positions.5. Public Defenderse. Law enforcement officers who work for the FBI , DEA, U.S. Marshalls' Service, the ATF, or DHS.6. State and local law enforcement officersf. The presiding officers at judicial proceedings.7. Federal law enforcementg. Sheriff's deputies, state and local police.8. Paralegals or legal assistantsh. Licensed professionals who can appear in court to represent individuals.9. Parole and probation officersi. Attorneys provided by the state to defend individuals who cannot afford to hire a private attorney.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. U. S. Constitutiona. Orders given by the president of governors that have the weight of law within the operation of the federal or state executive branch.2. English Bill of Rightsb. Laws passed by the U.S. Congress or state legislatures.3. U.S. Bill of Rightsc. Code that attempts to unify state penal codes.4. Treatiesd. Precursor to the U.S. Bill of Rights, it guarantees due process and bars cruel and unusual punishments5. Napoleonic Codee. Rules issued by a municipal, county, state or federal agency authorized by a statute.6. Codified Lawsf. The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.7. Regulationsg. The French System of Laws developed by Napoleon I.8. Model Penal Code and Commentariesh. Rulings courts make interpreting codified laws and regulations.9. Executive Ordersi. Agreements with foreign governments ratified by the U.S. Senate.10. Judicial Decisionsj. The document upon which the U.S. government is based.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Arrest Warranta. An accused's first official notification of the charges against him or her occurring shortly after arrest.2. Miranda Warningb. The stage of a criminal case at which the defendant is first formally charged with a specific crime.3. Preliminary Arraignmentc. Money or other guarantee posted to assure a defendant who is released from custody pending trial or appeal will appear in court.4. Baild. A formal hearing that is the first occasion the government must produce evidence against the defendant.5. Preliminary Hearinge. The situation that occurs when the court does not require the defendant to post bail at the preliminary hearing.6. Released on one's own recognizancef. A document approved by a magistrate or justice attesting that there is probable cause to believe that someone has committed a specific crime, and authorizing that person's arrest.7. Arraignmentg. The warning given to suspects that they have the right to remain silent and the right to counsel.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. The Supremacy Clausea. Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution that gives the federal government the right to regulate interstate commerce.2. The Commerce Clauseb. The power of a government to enforce the laws and regulate the health, safety, morals and welfare of the population.3. Police powerc. Article VI, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution that states that the Constitution, federal law and treaties are the supreme law of the land.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Legislativea. The branch of government charged with enforcing the law.2. Executiveb. The branch of government charged with interpreting the law.3. Judicialc. The branch of government charged with making the law.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Summary Offensesa. Crimes punishable by relatively short prison sentences or fines.2. Misdemeanorsb. The most serious classification of crimes punishable by long prison sentences or death.3. Feloniesc. Minor offenses such as parking tickets, or minor traffic violations.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Burden of Proofa. The burden of proof the prosecution must meet in a criminal trial.2. Beyond a reasonable doubtb. The standard required to prove an allegation with facts.3. Preponderance of the evidencec. In a civil case, the person against whom the suit is filed. In a criminal case, the person accused of a crime.4. Plaintiffd. Evidence that is more convincing than the opposing evidence.5. Defendante. The party who files a lawsuit

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Consensus Theorya. The school of jurisprudence thought that believes laws are based on logic.2. Elite or ruling class Theoryb. The theory that laws develop out of a society's consensus about what is right and wrong.3. Natural Law Schoolc. The school of jurisprudential thought that believes the law is an accumulation of societal traditions.4. Historical Schoold. The theory that laws only exist as a means of class oppression.5. Analytical Schoole. The school of jurisprudential thought that teaches that laws are based on morality and ethics, and that people have natural rights.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Lawa. The Study of Law2. Jurisprudenceb. To stand by that which was decided, rule by which courts decide new cases based on how they decided similar cases before.3. Common Lawc. The body of rules of conduct created by government and enforced by the authority of the government.4. Stare Decisisd. The system of jurisprudence originated in England and later applied in the United States, that is based on judicial precedent rather than legislative enactments.5. Precedente. Prior decision that a court must follow when deciding a new, similar case.

Q: Why is diversion such an important part of the juvenile justice system? Why would members of society have concerns with its use?

Q: Devise a strategy to combat juvenile bullying in regards to cybercrime including sexting. How would you implement such a program?

Q: Define and explain The Save the Child Movement. What specific court cases have increased support for working the "child".

Q: Sexting includes engaging in sexually explicit images via text messaging and cell phones. a. Trueb. False

Q: Some communities hire _________, who provide counseling and a security presence in school buildings.

Q: Community based options include _____, in which juvenile offenders live with families, usually for a short period, and group homes, often privately run facilities for groups of 12 to 20 juvenile offenders.