Q&A Hero

Q: __________ examination is the initial questioning of a witness or defendant by the lawyer who is using the person's testimony to further his or her case.

Q: To avoid objections to an officer's testimony, he or she should avoid __________ and nonresponsive answers.

Q: Police officers are generally witnesses for the __________.

Q: The ___________ Amendment protects defendants against self-incrimination.

Q: Law enforcement officers find it important to embellish testimony in many cases.

Q: An expert witness is a person who has special training, education or experience in an area.

Q: Officers and investigators should review all reports on the case prior to going to trial, but only if they did not write the reports.

Q: Investigators should include a summary of all negative or exculpatory evidence developed during the investigation in a report to the prosecuting attorney.

Q: Nonverbal factors can be important when a person testifies in court.

Q: The "win" for an investigator who testifies is to have established credibility.

Q: Videotaped testimony is never allowed, so trials must be postponed until all witnesses are able to appear in court.

Q: While testifying, an investigator should always refer to his or her report as a script to ensure consistency.

Q: It is acceptable for law enforcement officers to offer opinions and conclusions when testifying.

Q: The prosecutor may choose not to prosecute if the complainant refuses to prosecute.

Q: Phrases such as "I believe" or "to the best of my recollection" may leave a negative impression on the jury.

Q: If the defense claims that your testimony does not agree with that of other officers, you should amend your testimony to eliminate possible jury perceptions of a disorganized and ineffective police department.

Q: Most criminal cases are resolved without a trial.

Q: A motion that requests the judge to issue a protective order against prejudicial questions or statements is called a motion to suppress.

Q: In a criminal trial, the prosecution presents its case first.

Q: It is fine to discuss the case with other witnesses scheduled for the trial, unless the judge has ordered that this not occur.

Q: Officers testifying during cross-examination should volunteer information whenever they have the opportunity to contribute.

Q: Statements about the defendant's criminal record and reputation as a law-breaker are admissible before a jury.

Q: A trial before a judge without a jury is referred to as a bench trial.

Q: The law is interpreted for the jurors by the bailiff.

Q: The prosecutor is described by the text as the a. arbitrator. b. gatekeeper of the court system. c. mediator. d. trier of facts.

Q: Officers who testify in court should a. dress appropriately and be on time. b. admit when they have made a mistake in testifying. c. admit when they don"t know the answer to the question. d. all of these choices.

Q: Officers who are waiting to testify may speak to jurors or other witnesses as long as the communication is _________, such as a simple hello or the giving of directions. a. de minimus b. exculpatory c. veneer d. de facto

Q: Which of the following statements is true? a. Defense attorneys will try to impeach the testimony of prosecution witnesses. b. An officer who mishandles his or her testimony in court can be impeached from the investigation. c. Any witness moving through the well can automatically be impeached by the judge. d. A witness in court will be impeached if he or she does not look directly at the jury when testifying.

Q: When officers testify, it is advisable for them to admit a. mistakes in prior testimony. b. when they do not understand a question. c. when they do not know an answer. d. all of these choices.

Q: Redirect examination follows a. direct examination. b. re-cross-examination. c. cross-examination. d. surrebuttal.

Q: Defendants in a case must a. take the witness stand and testify. b. answer questions if they elect to take the witness stand. c. be represented by counsel. d. remain silent.

Q: The purpose of the pretrial conference is to a. review the case to determine strengths and weaknesses. b. predetermine answers to possible questions. c. get acquainted with the prosecuting attorney. d. try for a plea bargain.

Q: In order to be prosecuted, a case requires that the prosecutor is able to present a. a confession. b. proof beyond a reasonable doubt. c. proof of probable cause. d. motive, means and opportunity.

Q: Inadmissible statements include all but which of the following forms of evidence? a. opinions of witnesses b. privileged communication c. hearsay d. direct evidence

Q: If a case is exceptionally cleared, this means that a. no charges are being filed because the prosecutor did not share evidence with the defender. b. the testimony of the officer was exceptional. c. no charges are being filed because of something that happened outside the investigation. d. the motion in limine was not upheld.

Q: The Brady rule grew out of a landmark Supreme Court case that relates to the a. well of evidence. b. discovery process. c. rule on witnesses. d. cross-examination.

Q: Which of the following terms refers to witnesses called by the prosecution? a. subpoena b. the rule on witnesses c. surrebuttal d. rebuttal

Q: Which of the following is not contained in a final report? a. statements, admissions and confessions b. photographs and sketches c. summary of negative evidence d. the officer's recommendation to the jury

Q: When testifying, it is recommended that officers either give an approximation or use brackets in their statements, which is another way of a. providing a range. b. using a defensive tone. c. employing hand gestures. d. quoting directly from the report.

Q: When officers are finished testifying, they should a. leave the stand. b. leave the stand when dismissed. c. conclude with a statement. d. thank the jury.

Q: At the pretrial conference with the prosecutor, investigators should do all but which one of the following? a. review all evidence b. discuss strengths and weaknesses of the case c. discuss the probable line of questioning by prosecutor and defense d. ask the defendant if he or she "did it"

Q: Which of the following is inadmissible for an officer to make in court? a. statements including obscenity or vulgarity b. statements about the defendant's behavior at the time of arrest c. statements about the defendant's criminal record d. none of these choices

Q: The most important rule for eradicating fear of testifying in court is to always a. assist with the conviction of the suspect. b. inform the prosecutor of your plans during testimony. c. understand what the problems are with the case. d. tell the truth.

Q: Once a report is written, the writer should a. staple the pages together if it is more than one page, and file it. b. evaluate it. c. immediately show it to the prosecutor for approval. d. give a copy to both the prosecution and defense.

Q: Which of the following are parts of communication? a. words b. expressions, appearance c. demeanor, personality d. all of these choices

Q: Roles are clearly defined for both the prosecution and the defense because we have what type of legal system? a. adversarial b. contentious c. federalist d. accusatory

Q: Which of the following takes place last in a criminal trial? a. opening statements b. instructions to the jury c. jury selection d. presentation of the defense's case

Q: Direct examination of witnesses is done by a. prosecution counsel only. b. defense counsel only. c. both prosecution and defense counsel. d. the judge.

Q: What type of evidence tends to show innocence of the accused and must be disclosed? a. expectoratory b. exculpatory c. excruciating d. excoriating

Q: Why do some criticize homeland security as "the monster that ate criminal justice"?

Q: Briefly outline the three-tiered model of al-Qaeda terrorist attacks.

Q: Describe the five goals that have been outlined as priorities for the DHS.

Q: How can local law enforcement officers serve the counterterrorism effort in the first two stages of al-Qaeda terrorist attacks?

Q: Discuss the changes to the threat advisory program that were enacted in 2011 and describe the main difference in the new program.

Q: Discuss whether community policing can be effective in the post-9/11 era, in terms of guarding against further terrorist attacks.

Q: Describe how the intelligence cycle works, and how it is affected by the operational style of law enforcement.

Q: How is white-collar crime linked to terrorism?

Q: Outline the main elements of the USA PATRIOT Act.

Q: What new technologies are being used to increase border security and contribute to homeland security?

Q: How does the patrol officer in the field participate in the prevention of terrorism?

Q: Outline the different categories of methods that terrorists use in an attack. Give an example of each type of attack.

Q: What are the two lead agencies that work to combat terrorism? How do their roles differ?

Q: Describe what motivates most terrorist attacks. Briefly discuss motivations for both international and domestic terrorism.

Q: What are the two main concerns related to the war on terrorism? Explain each one briefly.

Q: Radiation presence and amount can be detected using a handheld __________.

Q: The Party of God, or ______________, is a militia group and political party that first emerged in Lebanon following the Israeli invasion of that country in 1982.

Q: The most feared type of attack by Americans is _______________.

Q: Many terrorist operations are financed by _____________ groups and wealthy Arabs sympathetic to the group's cause.

Q: The members of _________ groups are typically heavily armed and often frustrated and socially unable to cope with change.

Q: Most terrorist acts result from ____________ with a religious, political or social system or policy and frustration resulting from an inability to change it through acceptable, nonviolent means.

Q: _______________ extremists believe in a pro-Marx stance that the rich must be brought down and the poor elevated.

Q: The first spontaneous Palestinian revolt in Gaza and the West Bank was called the _____________.

Q: The _______________, a new development in the war against terrorism, is an effective and efficient mechanism to exchange information and intelligence.

Q: The informal banking system based on trust and bartering in the Middle East is called _______________.

Q: Americans should remain alert to indicators of biological warfare especially in areas of high population, because the aftereffects of such attacks, also referred to as the "contagion effect," can be lethal.

Q: Civil liberties are not a major concern in the war on terrorism.

Q: In general, law enforcement experiences from the war on drugs are not applicable to the war on terrorism.

Q: Hometown Security and Homeland Security basically mean the same thing.

Q: It is of vital importance that all patrol officers remain distrustful of Arab Americans until they are able to ascertain their citizenship.

Q: Federal officials are the most important resource for combating terrorism.