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Home » Criminal Law » Page 199

Criminal Law

Q: There is evidence that a subculture of violence may be found in areas that experience concentrated poverty and social disorganization.

Q: Unlike lower species, humans lack an inhibition against fatal violence toward their own species and are capable of killing their own kind in war or as a result of interpersonal conflict.

Q: ____________ is the most common type of robbery, especially in urban areas. a. Carjacking b. Commercial robbery c. Robbery on private premises d. Robbery in an open area

Q: Women are most likely to be stalked by: a. a stranger b. a casual acquaintance c. older males d. an intimate partner

Q: Which of the following is not among the factors that precipitate workplace violence? a. temporary, short-term worker unexpectedly laid-off b. appearance of a cold and insensitive management style c. poor service or perceived slights by clients d. reported for sexual harassment

Q: Who is most likely to engage in workplace violence? a. a middle-aged white female facing termination b. a middle-aged white male facing termination c. a middle-aged minority female facing termination d. a middle-aged minority male facing termination

Q: What is the most common motivation behind hate crime? a. religious intolerance b. racial bigotry c. sexual orientation d. bias against a disability

Q: Levin notes that some people are not committed to hate but drift in and out of active bigotry. Levin called such people: a. spectators b. sympathizers c. specialists d. dabblers

Q: Which of the following factors does not precipitate hate crimes? a. stable economic conditions b. racial stereotypes in the media c. hate-filled discourse on talk shows d. the use of racial "code language"

Q: Violent acts directed toward a particular person or members of a group merely because the targets share a discernible racial, ethnic, religious, or gender characteristic are known as: a. forms of instrumental violence b. felony murders c. subcultures of violence d. hate crimes

Q: Criminals who use force to obtain money or goods from people they know are engaging in what type of crime? a. commercial robbery b. household robbery c. acquaintance robbery d. negligent robbery

Q: Which of the following is not a factor that predicts spousal abuse? a. flashes of anger b. military service c. the presence of alcohol d. economic stability

Q: Any physical, emotional, or sexual trauma to a child for which no reasonable explanation, such as an accident, can be found is known as: a. child abuse b. elder abuse c. hate crimes d. cruelty to animals

Q: The crime that requires offensive touching, such as slapping, hitting, or punching a victim is: a. battery b. assault c. road rage d. aggravated assault

Q: When referring to serial killers, which of the following is false? a. Ten to fifteen percent of serial killers are women. b. Serial killers come from diverse backgrounds. c. Most experts view serial killers as sociopaths who from early childhood demonstrate bizarre behavior. d. A gun is often used because it allows for a quick means to kill the victim .

Q: A sequential pattern of behavior that is common between the offender and victim in which actions escalate and ultimately, result in a homicide is known as? a. a concurrent killing b. murder transactions c. the brutalization process d. the virility mystique

Q: While few in number, female murderers are most likely to kill? a. a coworker b. a family member c. a stranger d. a friend of similar social standing

Q: Mass murder involves killing four or more victims by one or a few assailants within a single event. These single, uncontrollable outbursts are also termed: a. concurrent killings b. outburst killings c. spree killings d. simultaneous killings

Q: A person can also be held criminally liable for the death of another even if they did not intend to injure another person but they disregard or ignore an excessive risk to an another's health or safety. This is called: a. nonnegligent manslaughter b. negligent manslaughter c. deliberate indifference d. second-degree murder

Q: Felony murder usually constitutes: a. negligent homicide b. nonnegligent manslaughter c. first-degree murder d. second-degree murder

Q: Laws that protect women from being questioned about their sexual history unless it directly bears on the case are called: a. safeguard laws b. immunity laws c. exemption laws d. shield laws

Q: Unlike any other violent crime, what legal aspect is necessary to be disproved when prosecuting rape? a. injury b. malice c. consent d. intent

Q: Which of the following causal explanations for rape reflects the evolutionary view? a. The sexual urge corresponds to the unconscious need to preserve the species by spreading one's genes as widely as possible. b. Rape is a legitimate response if one's sexual advances are rebuffed c, Rape is a function of modern male socialization. d. Infatuation and fixation with one's self drives rapists to seek power and control over those deemed inferior to themselves.

Q: The belief that males must separate their sexual feelings from needs for love, respect, and affection is called: a. hypermasculinity b. the brutalization process c. the virility mystique d. narcissistic personality disorder

Q: Statutory rape refers to sexual relations between an adult and a/an: a. elderly woman b. married woman c. underage minor d. nonconsenting adolescent

Q: What is known to be true regarding marital rape? a. Many spousal rapes are accompanied by brutal, sadistic beatings. b. When marital rapists are convicted, they are sanctioned more harshly than those accused of nonmarital sexual assaults. c. Today, only three states recognize marital rape as a crime. d. Instances of marital rape tend to be isolated, one-time events.

Q: Date rape, statutory rape, and marital rape are subcategories of: a. familial sexual assault b. acquaintance rape c. intrafamilial sexual assault d. serial rape

Q: Which of the following is not true regarding the incidence of rape? a. Population density influences the rape rate. b. The rape rate has increased in the past decade. c. The police make arrests in more than 50% of all reported rape offenses. d. Rape is a warm-weather crime.

Q: Rape by someone known to the victim, including family members and friends, is known as: a. acquaintance rape b. date rape c. blitz rape d. association rape

Q: The systematic rape of Bosnian and Kosovar women by Serbian army officers during the civil war in the former Yugoslavia, reflects that: a. Rape is a process predominantly meant to impose dependency upon its victims. b. Rapists are often falsely accused by vindictive victims. c. Rape has long been associated with military conquest. d. Rape hot lines often fail to provide victims with needed assistance.

Q: Rapists that are bound up in ritual in which they torment and torture their victims are labeled: a. sadistic rapists b. anger rapists c. gang rapists d. power rapists

Q: A rape in which the goal is sexual conquest and the amount of force used is not excessive as the attacker does not want to harm his/her victim is known as: a. anger rape b. gang rape c. serial rape d. power rape

Q: Which is an inaccurate statement pertaining to the history of rape? a. All but three states have revised their rape statues to make them gender neutral. b. With few exceptions, rape has been a recognized crime throughout history. c. Under feudal law, "heiress stealing" equated women with property. d. A woman who was raped was almost automatically seen as an innocent victim who did not contribute to her attack.

Q: Some nations have relatively high violence rates. Which of the following national characteristics does not predict violence? a. robust economy b. a high level of social disorganization c. high child abuse rates d. political corruption

Q: A potent theme of violence that influences lifestyles, the socialization process, and interpersonal relationships is known as: a. cultural retaliatory homicide b. subculture of violence c. disputatiousness d. brutalization process

Q: Within subcultures of violence, it is considered appropriate for an individual who has been offended by a negative outcome in a dispute to seek reparations through violent means. This concept is termed: a. brutalization process b. thanatos c. disputatiousness d. malefic

Q: Much of the difference in rates of violent crime between whites and racial minorities can be explained by minorities being forced to live in high crime neighborhoods, which: a. provide a poorer quality of schooling b. increases their risk of exposure to violence c. contain few social interaction opportunities d. provide a lack of legitimate economic opportunities

Q: Athens links violence to early experiences with child abuse. Which is the proper ordering of how antisocial careers develop under this link? a. brutalization process, virulency stage, violent performances b. violent performances, brutalization process, virulency stage c. virulency stage, violent performances, brutalization process d. brutalization process, violent performances, virulency stage

Q: The link between substance abuse and violence occurs in three different formats. Violent behavior that results from the conflict inherent in the drug trade is known as: a. the subculture of violence b. psychopharmacological relationship c. economic compulsive behavior d. systemic link

Q: According to Freud, the instinctual drive that produces self-destruction expressed externally as violence or internally as suicide or alcoholism, is termed: a. eros b. thanatos c. hostility d. aggression

Q: Violent acts designed to improve the financial or social position of the criminal are known as: a. instrumental violence b. expressive violence c. rational violence d. irrational violence

Q: Violence acts that vent rage, anger, or frustration are known as: a. instrumental violence b. expressive violence c. rational violence d. irrational violence

Q: _________________ are violent acts directed toward a particular person or members of a group merely because the targets share a discernible racial, ethnic, religious, or gender characteristic.

Q: Robbers who rob to obtain small amounts of money when an accessible target presents itself are called ________________.

Q: _____________ describes any physical or emotional trauma to a child for which no reasonable explanation, such as an accident or ordinary disciplinary practices, can be found.

Q: Excessive alcohol use, access to a weapon, estrangement, obsession with a partner's behavior, flashes of anger, and men who are under economic stress are predictors of __________________.

Q: A sequential pattern of behavior between the offender and the victim that ultimately results in homicide is known as _______________________________.

Q: ____________________ involves the killing three or more persons in three or more separate events. In between the murders, the killer reverts to his/her normal lifestyle.

Q: _____________________ requires the killer to have malice aforethought but not premeditation or deliberation.

Q: ___________________ protect women from being questioned about their sexual history unless it directly bears on the case.

Q: ___________________ occurs when there are sexual relations between an underage (minor) victim and an adult.

Q: Rape involving people in some form of romantic relationship is known as ____________.

Q: Violent rates are highest in urban areas where subcultural values support gangs that typically embrace the use of violence. The culture which houses gangs associates honor with _________________________ and the use of violence to protect reputation.

Q: In the _______________________ a potent theme of violence influences lifestyles, the socialization process, and interpersonal relationships.

Q: The link between substance abuse and violence appears in three different formats. The format or concept of ___________________ reflects the violent behavior that results from gang conflict inherent in the drug trade.

Q: Neuroscientists claim to have found differences in both the limbic system and the __________________ of the brain that separates aggressive, violent people from the more level-headed and reasonable.

Q: ____________________ is violence that is designed not for profit or gain but to vent rage, anger, or frustration.

Q: According to control-balance theory, this occurs when the amount of control one is subject to by others is in balance with the amount of control one can exercise over others. a. conformity b. crime c. exploitation d. defiance

Q: High levels of coercion produce criminality. Coercion that involves pressures beyond an individual's control, such as economic and social pressure caused by unemployment or poverty, is termed: a. covert coercion b. latent coercion c. interpersonal coercion d. impersonal coercion

Q: According to latent trait theories, why are people who are antisocial during adolescence the most likely to persist in crime? a. because latent traits are stable b. because adolescents tend to associate with deviant peers c. because educational achievement is more difficult during an adolescent's middle and high-school years d. because cognitive ability is fully formed by adolescence

Q: A stable feature, characteristic, property, or condition present at birth or established early in life that makes some people crime-prone over the life course is known as a(n): a. life-factor b. hidden characteristic c. underlying feature d. latent trait

Q: In follow-up research, Laub and Sampson found a number of different interventions to reduce criminal activity. Which of the following is not one of them? a. getting a job b. remaining in one's environment c. joining the military d. marriage

Q: According to Sampson and Laub, what is false regarding the marriage factor and crime? a. People who maintain successful marriages are more likely to mature out of crime. b. Marriage destabilizes people. c. The marriage benefit may be intergenerational. d. Marriage reduces exposure to deviant peers, which in turn reduces the opportunity to become involved in crime.

Q: Which of the following is not supported by research on age-graded theory? a. As levels of cumulative disadvantage increase, crime-resisting elements of social life are impaired. b. Criminal career trajectories are set from an early age and cannot be reversed. c. Gaining social capital later in life helps erase some of the damage caused by its absence in youth. d. People change over the life course and factors that predict delinquency may have less of an impact on adult crime.

Q: Positive relations with individuals and institutions that are life sustaining are known as: a. social connections b. prosocial bonds c. social capital d. turning points

Q: The life events most likely to enable adult offenders to desist from crime are: a. religion and marriage b. marriage and career c. education and religion d. marriage and education

Q: Life events that alter the development of a criminal career are known as: a. developmental shifts b. transition events c. key spots d. turning points

Q: A condition caused by repeat negative experiences, which may undermine life changes and increase the risk of offending is known as: a. turning point b. cumulative disadvantage c. persistence d. social capital

Q: Which theorists developed age-graded theory, life course theory that encompasses transitions and turning points. a. Gottfredson and Hirschi b. Glueck and Glueck c. Sampson and Laub d. Wilson and Hernstein

Q: Life course theories are considered _________________ because they incorporate social, personal, and developmental factors into complex explanations of human behavior. a. social psychological theories b. integrated theories c. interdisciplinary theories d sociobiological theories

Q: Research indicates that _____ offend more frequently and engage in a greater variety of antisocial acts than other offenders; they also manifest significantly more mental health problems. a. adolescent-limiteds b. life-course persisters c. adolescent-diminshers d. social-persisters

Q: A small group of offenders who begin their career at an early age and then continue to offend well into adulthood are known as: a. adolescent-limiteds b. life-course persisters c. adolescent-diminishers d. social-persisters

Q: Most offenders' antisocial behavior peaks during adolescence and then diminishes as they mature to around the age of 18. These offenders are known as: a. adolescent-limited b. life-course persisters c. adolescent-diminishers d. social-persisters

Q: The __________________ stay out of trouble in adolescence, until late in their teenage years, and then become violent chronic persisters. a. adolescent-limited b. life course persistent c. late bloomer d. adolescent bloomers

Q: Most life course theories assume that the seeds of a criminal career are planted early in life and that early onset of deviance strongly predicts ________. a. the cycle of violence b. later poor parenting ability c. one's age of desistance d. later and more serious criminality

Q: Which of the following is not more typical of early-onset girls than early-onset boys? a. suicide b. depression c. substance abuse d. relationship problems

Q: What does research show to be a key factor in terms of early onset of criminality? a. close peer relationships b. racism c. poor parental discipline d. educational attainment

Q: What is known about the age of onset and the continuity of crime? a. Early-onset criminals are more involved in aggressive acts ranging from cruelty to animals to peer-directed violence. b. Late-onset criminals are more likely to be involved in nonviolent crimes such as theft. c. Children who become the most serious delinquents begin their deviant careers at a very early (preschool) age. d. Late-onset criminals are more likely to be involved in physically aggressive acts.

Q: The pathway of crime that begins at an early age with stubborn behavior leading to deviance and then to authority avoidance is known as: a. the power pathway b. the authority conflict pathway c. the overt pathway d. the covert pathway

Q: The pathway of crime that begins with bullying and annoying others and then escalates to physical fighting and violence is known as: a. the power pathway b. the authority conflict pathway c. the overt pathway d. the covert pathway

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