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Criminal Law
Q:
Today's Federal Bureau of Investigation is not an investigative agency; rather, it is a police agency.
Q:
Today, there approximately 800,000 full-time law enforcement officers in the United States, employed at the various levels of government.
Q:
While the Fifth Amendment provides protection from double jeopardy, if an act violates the laws of two states, the offender may be tried in each state under the:
a. equivalent sovereignty doctrine
b. equal jurisdiction doctrine
c. dual jurisdiction doctrine
d. dual sovereignty doctrine
Q:
The right to be protected from double jeopardy was made applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment in the case of:
a. Benton v. Maryland
b. Baldwin v. New York
c. Williams v. Florida
d. Maryland v. Craig
Q:
In the case of Baldwin v. New York, the Supreme Court held that defendants are entitled to a jury trial:
a. whenever the possibility of incarceration existed
b. only in felony cases
c. whenever the defendant so requested
d. only if they face the possibility of a prison sentence of more than six months
Q:
If a defendant is convicted, the judge normally orders a presentence investigation conducted by the _____________ preparatory to imposing a sentence.
a. prosecuting attorney
b. probation department
c. defense attorney
d. court bailiff
Q:
Which of the following (partial) ordering of events accurately reflects the trial process?
a. charging the jury, opening statements, direct examination, redirect examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
b. charging the jury, opening statements, direct examination, rebuttal, redirect examination, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
c. opening statements, direct examination, cross examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
d. opening statements, charging the jury, direct examination, redirect examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, verdict
Q:
The questioning of prospective jurors by the prosecution and defense in order to determine their appropriateness to sit on a jury is termed:A)venireB)voir direC)nolle prosequiD)jury array
Q:
The first stage of the trial process involves:
a. jury selection
b. negotiating a plea bargain
c. charging the jury
d. setting bail
Q:
Which of the following would not motivate a defendant to plea bargain?
a. to reduce their sentences
b. to avoid detention and trial
c. to protect their accomplices
d. to minimize cooperation
Q:
Today, more than ___ of criminal convictions are estimated to result from the negotiated process of plea bargaining.
a. 60 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 80 percent
d. 90 percent
Q:
In felony cases, plea bargaining usually occurs:
a. after arrest and before arraignment
b. between arraignment and the onset of trial
c. during the trial
d. after the trial but before sentencing
Q:
Which of the following is not accurate pertaining to what is known about bail?
a. Bail penalizes indigent offenders who do not have the means to pay bond.
b. Failing to make bail appears to increase the risk of being convicted and the degree of punishment received.
c. Most states place no limit on the amount of bail that may be imposed.
d. The right to bail comes from the Sixth Amendment of the Constitution.
Q:
Some defendants are detained because they cannot make bail. If a defendant is denied bail because of the danger they pose to society, the detention is termed:
a. anticipatory detention
b. preemptive detention
c. protective detention
d. preventive detention
Q:
The bail system goes back to English common law and is meant to ensure the appearance of the defendant at trial. Who actually sets the amount of bail?
a. a probation officer
b. a prosecutor
c. a magistrate
d. a court bailiff
Q:
A charge identifies the criminal activity, the facts of the case, and the circumstances of the arrest. What is this document called in the case of misdemeanor offenses?
a. a bill of indictment
b. a complaint
c. an information
d. a nolle prosequi
Q:
Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the judge?
a. guiding the questioning of witnesses
b. settling questions of evidence and procedure
c. charging the jury
d. negotiating a plea bargain with the accused
Q:
Which form of indigent defense involves a salaried staff of full or part-time attorneys that provide services through a public or private non-profit organization or as direct government (court) paid employees?
a. contract counsel
b. assigned counsel
c. public defender
d. court advocate counsel
Q:
Which of the following is not a role of the prosecutor?A)determining the charges to be brought against a suspectB)negotiating a guilty plea with the defendantC)charging the juryD)issuing a nolle prosequi
Q:
Who determines the charges to be brought against a suspect?A)the policeB)the judgeC)the county magistrateD)the prosecutor
Q:
When the U.S. Supreme Court words a decision in such a way that it becomes a precedent and must be honored by all lower courts it is termed a:
a. certiorari decision
b. hallmark decision
c. writ decision
d. landmark decision
Q:
In the United States, what is the "court of last resort?"
a. a state's supreme court
b. the Executive Office of the President
c. the U.S. Supreme Court
d. the U.S. Attorney General's federal appeals court
Q:
The typical state court structure includes lower courts that try _____________, superior courts that try ____________, and appellate courts that review the procedures of trial courts to determine whether offenders were treated fairly.
a. traffic offenses - misdemeanor and felony cases
b. misdemeanor cases " felony cases
c. felony cases " misdemeanor cases
d. juvenile cases " adult cases
Q:
Police officers cannot perform a warrantless search under what circumstance?
a. when consent to search is willingly given
b. when it is performed incident to a lawful arrest
c. if there is probable cause to believe the automobile was involved in a crime
d. when ahousesitter allows the officers to enter and searchthe premise
Q:
When an officer does not have probable cause to arrest but her or his suspicions are legitimately aroused by the unusual or suspicious behavior of an individual, the officer can:A)request an arrest warrantB)perform a stop and friskC)request immediate backupD)conduct a search incident to an arrest
Q:
Recent court rulings pertaining to Miranda warnings have:
a. led to the exoneration of a wave of convicted offenders who were illegally interrogated
b. caused a backlog of appeals pertaining to the admissibility of evidence
c. reduced police powers as they pertain to interrogation
d. given police greater leeway in their actions
Q:
Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources. This is referred to as:
a. the public safety doctrine
b. the plain view doctrine
c. the Miranda evidence discovery rule
d. the inevitable discovery rule
Q:
The Supreme Court has used case law to define the boundaries of the Miranda warning since this landmark decision was handed down. Which is inaccurate pertaining to these boundaries?
a. Suspects must be fully aware of all the possible outcomes of waiving their rights for the Miranda warning to be considered properly given.
b. Admissible evidence can be obtained without a Miranda warning if the information sought is needed to protect public safety.
c. At trial, the testimony of a witness is permissible even if her or his identity was revealed by the defendant in violation of the Miranda rule.
d. Once a criminal suspect has invoked his or her Miranda rights, police officials cannot reinitiate interrogation in the absence of counsel.
Q:
A police officer can initiate an arrest when a crime has been observed or when an arrest warrant has been issued. In either case, an arrest must be based on:
a. fundamental fairness
b. plausible evidence
c. reasonable suspicion
d. probable cause
Q:
An aggressive policing strategy that identifies and focuses on a specific crime or specific criminals and then develops strategies to counteract them is known as
a. community-policing
b. problem-oriented policing
c. intelligence-led policing
d. community-led policing
Q:
Which of the following components is not an element of community-oriented policing?
a. identifying neighborhood problems
b. getting to know citizens
c. responding to calls for help
d. maintaining a police presence in the community
Q:
The investigation of crimes occurs in a variety of ways. Which of the following is not a practice of detectives to investigate criminals?
a. Familiarity of an offender's modus operandi.
b. Work undercover and impersonate customers looking for illicit activities.
c. Victims or witnesses identify offenders by viewing mug shots or through a line-up.
d. Respond to the initial call for help.
Q:
What is known about adding more police officers to help bring down the crime rate?
a. Adding police deters minor offenders but has no impact on violent crime.
b. Adding police increases citizens' fear of crime.
c. Adding police has no impact on crime levels.
d. Adding police may reduce crime levels.
Q:
Assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun, drug, traffic, and related laws is termed:
a. strategic patrol
b. proactive patrol
c. directed patrol
d. targeted patrol
Q:
A classic attempt to measure police patrol effectiveness was the Kansas City study. What did this study indicate about the effectiveness of police patrol?
a. that proactive patrol reduced crime
b. that variations in patrol had little effect on crime patterns
c. that reactive patrol reduced crime but only in residential areas
d. that citizens' attitudes toward police became more favorable as patrol increased
Q:
Which of the following is not among the tasks performed by patrol officers?
a. Enhance public safety by maintaining a visible police presence
b. Promote public safety and crime prevention
c. Inhibit the movement of traffic and people
d. Maintain public order
Q:
Nearly all sheriff's departments provide basic law enforcement services and investigate crimes. Many sheriffs' departments also maintain:
a. state sex offender registries
b. the county courts
c. the county jail
d. automated finger print identification systems
Q:
Today, which is not an accurate statement regarding the top priorities of the Federal Bureau of Investigation?
a. protecting the United States from terrorist attacks
b. protecting civil rights
c. combating white-collar crime
d. combating public corruption at the federal level
Q:
In 1870, the U.S. Department of Justice became involved in policing when the attorney general hired investigators to enforce _______________. This eventually led to the formation of the FBI.
a. prohibition
b. the Mann Act
c. anti-slavery legislation
d. white-collar crime statutes
Q:
Which of the following is considered to be the first state police force?
a. Connecticut State Police
b. Massachusetts Police
c. Pennsylvania State Police
d. Texas Rangers
Q:
Police agencies can be found at the federal, state, and local levels. How many local police departments exist at these levels?
a. about 10,000
b. about 13,000
c. about 16,000
d. about 18,000
Q:
Police and other law enforcement agents are termed the gatekeepers of society because:
a. Gatekeepers was a historic term associated with the London Metropolitan Police.
b. Police initiate contact with law violators.
c. Police provide security in American society.
d. Gatekeeping involves opening and closing a flow; thus, police discretion controls the gates of the justice system.
Q:
The right to be protected from _____________ was made applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment in the case of Benton v. Maryland.
Q:
______________________ allow the prosecution and defense to excuse jurors for no particular reason or for an undisclosed reason.
Q:
It has been argued that ________________ encourages defendants to waive their constitutional right to a trial.
Q:
The practice of ___________________ occurs when defendants are denied bail because of the danger they present to the community.
Q:
_______________is a type of indigent defense whereby appointments are made from a list of private attorneys who accept cases on a judge-by-judge, court-by-court, or case-by-case basis.
Q:
The _____________ is empowered to negotiate a guilty plea with the defendant, thereby ending the formal trial process. This is termed plea bargaining.
Q:
Within the multi-tiered court structures of most states, _____________ courts review the criminal procedures of trial courts to determine whether the offenders were treated fairly.
Q:
Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources. This is termed ____________.
Q:
A ________________ search is valid if it is made incident to a lawful arrest.
Q:
_____________________ is an aggressive strategy in which police play an active role in identifying particular community problems and developing strategies to counteract them.
Q:
______________ involves assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun, drug, traffic, and related laws.
Q:
One of the primary goals of police work is to deter criminal behavior. However, the ________________ study found that variations in police patrol had little effect on the crime patterns in the study districts.
Q:
The _____________________is a federal level law enforcement agency whose officers help implement federal court rulings, transport prisoners, and enforce court orders.
Q:
The police and other law enforcement agents (such as federal agents) are the ________________ of the criminal justice process.
Q:
According to the restorative justice model, what is the true purpose of the criminal justice system and how might this purpose be realized (via the use of what methods)?
Q:
Why do proponents of the nonintervention model view rehabilitation and due process with suspicion? What do advocates of the nonintervention model advocate?
Q:
How do advocates of the rehabilitation model view the justice system? According to this model, what causes crime? How should the justice system deal with offenders?
Q:
What are the elements of the justice model and the concerns of its advocates?
Q:
Compare and contrast the elements and philosophies inherent within the crime control and due process models.
Q:
Explain how the criminal justice system has been shaped by the rule of law.
Q:
The criminal justice assembly line is an accurate metaphor of how the process of justice works. Explain why this is so.
Q:
List, in chronological order, and explain the process of justice.
Q:
Explain the meaning of, "the criminal justice system is an instrument of social control." Describe the size and extent of this social control instrument.
Q:
Discuss the importance and/or findings of the Chicago Crime Commission, the Wickersham Commission, the American Bar Foundation, and President Lyndon Johnson's Crime Commission and how each contributed to our understanding of the criminal justice system.
Q:
The restorative justice model views the violent punishing acts of the state as similar to the violent acts of individuals.
Q:
The nonintervention model seeks to limit the government's intrusion into people's lives. It espouses supports for the decriminalization of nonserious offenses such as possessing small amounts of marijuana.
Q:
The rehabilitation model suggests that with proper care and treatment, criminals can be changed into productive, law-abiding citizens.
Q:
The nonintervention model would be most worried about the government's expanding ability to use computers to intrude into people's private lives.
Q:
Those who adhere to due process principles believe in individualized justice, treatment, and rehabilitation of offenders.
Q:
Advocates of the due process model suggest that to effectively deal with crime one must attack its root causes.
Q:
Determinate sentencing, sentencing guidelines, and the truth-in-sentencing are three direct outcomes of the equal justice model.
Q:
Advocates of the equal justice model are concerned with unfairness in the criminal justice system, such as racism and discrimination, which causes sentencing disparity and unequal treatment before the law.
Q:
The changing social climate during the Ronald Reagan era ushered in the due process model focusing upon individual rights.
Q:
The goal of the crime control model is speedy, efficient justice.
Q:
Each component of the criminal justice system is closely supervised by state and federal courts through the law of criminal procedure, which sets out and guarantees citizens certain rights and privileges when they are accused of crime.
Q:
Complaints are the type of charging documents used in misdemeanor cases; informations and indictments are the charging documents used in felony cases.
Q:
When making an arrest, a police officer must inform the suspect by using the word "arrest" and must then transport the suspect to a police station.
Q:
From their inception in the nineteenth century, the component agencies of criminal justice have worked as a system.