Q&A Hero

Q: The Road Safety Act in England demonstrated a. initial deterrence decay as there was a decline in traffic fatalities and injuries upon implementation of the law that increased over time b. a deterrence program based in fear that has a zero-tolerance policy for any traffic infraction c. the failure of interlock breathalyzer systems in cars d. how access to public transportation reduces drinking and driving

Q: There are several reasons for thinking that tougher punishment is likely to work with drunk driving, including the fact that a. the certainty requirement is already being met so a more severe punishment will strengthen the deterrent effect b. the drunk driver meets all of the assumptions set forth in the theory of deterrence c. people who drink and drive have a stake in society and feel threatened by the stigma of arrest d. a & c

Q: Among the myths concerning drunk driving is a. that those with serious drinking problems beat the system b. a grossly exaggerated bi-annual number of deaths due to drunk driving c. innocent drivers and bystanders are typically the victims of alcohol-related crashes d. all of the above

Q: It is a myth to think that innocent drivers or bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol related crashes when faced with evidence from the chapter that a. 66% of people killed have at least three prior drunk driving arrests b. 66% of people killed are drivers in other cars, some of whom were impaired by alcohol c. 66% of people killed are the drunk drivers themselves d. innocent drivers or bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol related crashes

Q: The reality of driving after drinking is that a. it is limited to a few dangerous people b. innocent bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol-related crashes c. a small number of people with serious drinking problems and many arrests are responsible for the majority of alcohol-related fatalities d. drinking and driving is a routine part of a society where driving is universal and drinking is an acceptable social custom

Q: Select the drunk driving myth from the following list a. people with a serious drinking problem and many arrests frequently beat the system b. alcohol related does not mean alcohol was the cause of the accident c. most drivers killed in alcohol-related crashes do not have a history of drunk driving d. the criminal justice system is tough on drunk drivers

Q: Current data indicate that a. 31% of all traffic fatalities are caused by impaired drunk drivers b. 31% of all traffic fatalities are alcohol related c. 31,000 people are killed each year by drunk drivers d. 31% of drivers who have consumed alcohol are impaired by it

Q: Which Supreme Court decision upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty where there were guidelines to control its application? a. Gregg vs. Georgia b. Furman vs. Georgia c. Sellin vs. New York d. Lovett vs. Virginia

Q: According to the National Academy of Science's research, one serious conceptual and empirical flaws in virtually all of the studies on the death penalty is a. the exclusion of the possibility of clemency b. the inclusion of other punishments, such as prison terms c. failure to consider studies from other countries d. the exclusion of potential murderers' response to the risk of execution

Q: The three issues regarding the merits of the death penalty are morality, constitutionality and ________.a. rationality b. severity c. deterrenced. relevance

Q: The National Academy of Science's report has shown a. the death penalty has a strong deterrence effect on crime b. the death penalty has moral and constitutional properties c. there is no conclusive evidence on the deterrent effect of the death penalty d. the death penalty affects the murder rate

Q: Critics of Ehrlich's death penalty research assert that his formula a. does not control of the variables that affect the murder rate b. explains trends between the 1930s and 1960s but does not explain trends between the 1980s and 1990s c. does not explain trends between the 1930s and 1960s when executions declined while the crime rate declined or remained stable d. cannot explain trends during the moratorium on the death penalty from 1972-1976

Q: Ehrlich's research purported to prove that a. each execution deterred seven or eight murders b. each execution contributed to an additional seven or eight murders c. each execution deterred 17 or 18 murders d. each execution contributed to an additional 17 or 18 murders

Q: Sellin's comparative research showed thata. homicide rates increased in states when they abolished their death penalty and decreased when it was reinstatedb. each execution deterred seven or eight murdersc. states with the death penalty did not have lower crime rates than states that did not have the death penaltyd. homicides decreased in the months following an execution

Q: The risk of arrest for drug sales is a. 1 in every 45 sales b. 1 in every 10,000 sales c. 1 in every 4,500 sales d. 1 in every 500 sales

Q: The larger "regime" of punishments for homicide includes all EXCEPT the following a. Financial aid to pursue a GED b. Escaping arrest c. The death penalty d. Life without parole

Q: The key elements of "pulling levers" that demonstrate how it is a focused application of deterrence include ALL BUT WHICH of the following a. a focus on a select target group b. a message that was clearly heard by the target audience c. delivering on the threats and promises made d. relying on the perceptions of people in the community

Q: The pulling levers strategy focuses on a. all potential offenders of property and violent crimes b. offenders and associates known to police c. offenders in prison who committed a gun-related crime d. offenders who are sex offenders

Q: The real risk of arrest and punishment is a. Almost impossible to assess b. High in rural areas, low in cities c. Fairly low d. High in cities, low in rural areas

Q: Reasons provided to explain why offenders commit crime when they assess the bad consequences include ALL BUT WHICH of the following a. offenders consistently underestimate financial rewards of crime b. offenders act impulsively c. offenders perceive no legitimate or meaningful work opportunities d. offenders overestimate the immediate, short-term gains

Q: Liberal policy makers favora. Eliminating all deterrence-based policies b. Crackdowns, for their deterrent effect c. Explaining the results of crime to teensd. Investing in social policies

Q: Programs known as __________ exposed juveniles to prison conditions in order to provide direct evidence of the unpleasant consequences of criminal behavior.a. Brutalization Experience b. Magic Bullet c. Scared Straightd. Diversion

Q: Evaluations of Scared Straight programs revealed that a. they were not implemented as intended b. none of them reduced crime and some had adverse outcomes c. they were not cost-effective d. they deterred more chronic offenders than first-time offenders

Q: One of the reasons for being skeptical about how effectively deterrence-oriented policies are translated into practice is that a. these policies are interpreted differently by police than they are by the courts b. they are typically avoided by liberal courtroom work groups c. we haven"t had the funding to implement these policies as intended d. the social stigma attached to crime commission is lost given frequent arrests of African American males

Q: This deterrence type refers to a relative improvement over what we are currently achieving a. perceptual b. structural c. marginal d. general

Q: _____(1)_____ deterrence is directed at individual offenders while _____(2)_____ deterrence is directed at society as a wholea. (1) specific (2) general b. (1) general (2) specific c. (1) absolute (2) marginald. (1) marginal (2) absolute

Q: The theory of deterrence rests on a number of assumptions including a. severity of punishment is more important than its certainty b. the notion that the CJS is the only institution able to promote deterrence c. the use of UCR data to communicate risk of apprehension to potential offenders d. people have to perceive consequences as unpleasant and act rationally

Q: It is important to distinguish between a. the costs and benefits of deterrence based policies in the criminal justice system b. the deterrent effect of the criminal law and the effect of other social institutions c. ineffective traditional forms of deterrence and effective modern forms of deterrence d. the deterrent effect and the effects of prevention-based criminal justice policies

Q: The theory of deterrence a. is the oldest criminal justice theory on record b. is one of the youngest criminal justice theories on record c. is simple but its application to actual practice is complex d. is complex in its requirements but simple to practice

Q: Walker credits much of the decline in the motor vehicle death rate to social policies rather than criminal justice policies.

Q: Crackdowns are an effective strategy that deters drunk driving for a long period of time.

Q: The typical victim in an alcohol-related crash is the drunk driver who has no criminal justice record of drunk driving.

Q: Walker proposes that the death penalty does not deter homicides.

Q: To this date, Ehrlich's is the only high quality death penalty research that proves the death penalty deters murder.

Q: An analysis of Rand Inmate Survey data revealed that the inmates acted rationally in calculating the costs and benefits of crime.

Q: The fatalistic offender assumes that they will escape arrest and reap the rewards that crime has to offer.

Q: The "pulling levers" strategy has been shown to be effective in deterring crime because it is focused on select targets.

Q: Scared Straight programs are designed to deter by provoking fear in order to make crime seem more costly than beneficial to juveniles.

Q: Liberals typically favor deterrence-oriented policies because they favor prevention.

Q: The net effect is that Miranda results in a "loss" of convictions how frequently? a. less than 5% of the time b. between 10% and 15% of the time c. between 20% and 25% of the time d. half of the time

Q: Critics of Miranda argue that we should NOT look at the number of _____(1)_____ but at the number of _____(2)_____ due to Miranda or violations of it. a. (1) confessions police do not get (2) convictions overturned b. (1) convictions overturned (2) confessions police do not get c. (1) confessions police get (2) confessions police do not get d. (1) convictions overturned (2) convictions

Q: The Miranda warning must be givena. whenever a suspect is in custody b. once probable cause is determined c. at the moment of arrestd. before questioning

Q: The Miranda warning a. is used in roughly 80% of cases, but is only used successfully in 10% b. provides a remedy for the rule set fourth in the 4th Amendment to the Constitution c. includes a right to remain silent and the right to a retained or appointed attorney d. includes a right to an attorney of the suspect's choice

Q: Most defense lawyers do not file motions to suppress the evidence because a. they do not believe their motions will be accepted b. they have little time to devote to any one case c. they do not accept the validity of the exclusionary rule d. none of the above

Q: The positive impact of the exclusionary rulea. was offset by weakened relationships between police and prosecutorsb. has improved the professionalism of police workc. is that it increased the number of convictions made through improperly seized evidenced. there is no positive impact of the exclusionary rule

Q: When it comes to invoking the exclusionary rule, judgesa. vary in their willingness to use it b. are almost all willing to use it c. in 49 of 50 states are unwilling to use itd. choose to disregard it

Q: The impact of the exclusionary rule a. is pervasive considering the fact that 80% of school children recognize it b. ranges from 48-90% of cases c. is stronger in violent cases but is more limited in cases of property crime d. is limited because few motions to suppress physical evidence are made and even fewer are successful

Q: One of the reasons the exclusionary rule has such limited impact is that a. most defendants agree to a plea bargain before relying on this loophole b. most judges are on the side of the police not the defendant c. a good lead about a suspect solves more crimes than physical evidence d. it does not apply until a suspect is questioned rather than at the time of an arrest

Q: The exclusionary rule mainly impacts what type of cases?a. commercial robbery b. drug possession c. robberyd. sexual assault

Q: The purpose of the exclusionary rule is to a. protect suspects against self-incrimination b. deter police misconduct and protect individuals from it c. strengthen the relationship between police and prosecutors d. make improperly seized evidence inadmissible in federal court

Q: The exclusionary rule was established in which Supreme Court case? a. United States v. Leon b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Mapp v. Ohio d. New York v. Quarles

Q: According to Walker, a major drawback to drone use is a. that the expense does not justify their use b. their potential to increase crimes of theft and larceny c. the carbon footprint left by the drones d. the inefficiency of the lost contact between the police and the public

Q: According to conservatives, procedural rules a. are necessary to fight crime b. have handcuffed the police c. are a cost-effective way to selectively incapacitate chronic offenders d. encourage police corruption

Q: According to Harris, the problem with the fingerprint identification system in the U.S. is thata. it is illegal to collect fingerprints in several statesb. the FBI database holds the fingerprints of only a small percentage of the populationc. there is no official standard for the number of corresponding points to match printsd. the Miranda law prevents timely collection of evidence

Q: The usefulness of fingerprints in solving crimes is indicated by what factual evidence? a. New York City police obtain usable prints in only about 10 percent of all burglaries b. suspects in Long Beach, CA are identified through fingerprints in 75% of cases c. the FBI database contains fingerprints of only 200 million individuals d. fingerprints have only increased the clearance rate from 12% to 15%

Q: Select from the following the most accurate statement. a. the typical case gets an average of about 40 hours of detective work b. detectives solved 86 percent of cases where a suspect was immediately identified and cleared an additional 12 percent through fingerprints, blood samples and hair specimens c. between 80 and 90 percent of all arrests are made by detectives instead of patrol officers d. between 60 and 80 percent of all arrests are made by patrol officers instead of detectives

Q: The key to solving crimes and making arrests is?a. response time b. media coverage c. information on a specific suspectd. detectives

Q: Solving crimes depends more on _____(1)_____ than on _____(2)_____. a. (1) faster response time (2) the number of sworn officers in a department b. (1) the policing strategy (2) existing relationships between the victim and offender c. (1) characteristics of the crime (2) the number of detectives d. (1) the clearance rate (2) blood samples and hair specimens

Q: A Hot Spots experiment in Jersey City, NJ resulted in a. reduced crime in the targeted areas, but increased crime in the surrounding neighborhoods b. an increase in violent gun crimes among young men c. no significant changes d. decreased crime in both the targeted areas and surrounding neighborhoods e. none of the above

Q: Stop-and-frisk policies have the following impact on the social ledger: a. they erode trust in the police c. they contribute to community growth b. they increase poverty and homelessness d. they improve police-community relations

Q: The major significance of the smart policing initiatives is a. their routine use of crackdowns and faster response time b. their evidence that police activity can diminish crime c. their focus on zero-tolerance strategies and holding precinct commanders accountable for crime trends in their area by providing immediate crime data through regular meetings d. their use of hiring, innovative and technology grants in order to increase the number of college-educated and well-paid police officers

Q: The program that mobilized officials from housing fire and public works to target drug hot spots in Oakland, CA is what type of policing program?a. scanning, analysis, response, assessment b. Crackdown c. zero toleranced. problem oriented

Q: Policing strategies that involve careful planning, are data driven, and focus on particular crimes, locations, and suspects are known asa. COPS b. COMPSTAT c. Smart policingd. Zero

Q: Faster police response potentially makes a difference in ____ percent of crime calls: a. ten b. three c. twenty-five d. .01

Q: Faster response time will NOT produce more arrests because a. police are called to few crimes in progress and in many cases the victim can identify the suspect because they are acquaintances b. faster response time is correlated with an increase in police vehicle crashes which actually slows response time c. nationwide averages indicate that police already arrive on scene within seven minutes of being dispatched to a call d. it is detectives and their collection of blood, hairs and fibers that solve crimes not the speed with which patrol officers arrive on scene

Q: Some issues associated with the antidrug crackdown known as Operation Pressure Point were a. crime displacement into neighboring communities and police misconduct b. adaptation of drug dealers to the police strategies and the cost effectiveness of arrests c. the replacement of arrested offenders with another motivated offender d. all of the above

Q: Problems of crackdowns noted in the chapter include which of the following? a. they have been found to actually decrease deterrence b. they do not achieve the goals of community policing c. they are unfocused and encourage police misconduct d. they are expensive and do not result in more arrests

Q: A short burst of intensive law enforcement, involving many arrests, directed toward a particular area or a particular crime is known as what?a. problem-oriented policing b. Crackdown c. SMART policingd. Deterrent

Q: In assessing the deterrent effect of CCTV, it was most effective for a. property crimes overall b. violent crimes overall c. property crimes in specific locations d. violent crimes with significant others

Q: The extensive use of CCTV as a crime fighting tool is used where?a. United States b. England c. Canadad. France

Q: Deterrence requires which of the following factors? a. legitimate opportunities and serious penalties b. perceived threat and rational decision-making c. quick positive feedback and slow negative feedback d. all of the above e. none of the above

Q: In the Kansas City experiment, _____(1)_____ beats received no routine patrol while _____(2)_____ beats received two or three times the normal level of patrol.a. (1) control (2) proactive b. (1) proactive (2) reactive c. (1) reactive (2) controld. (1) reactive (2) proactive

Q: Residual deterrence refers toa. the invisibility of police patrols since they are spread so thinb. the absence of a deterrent effect from policing where one would be expectedc. the myth that two-officer patrol are safer than single-officer patrolsd. the tendency to think there are more police patrolling because we remember seeing them

Q: The Kansas City experiment found that a. the level of patrol has no effect on crime b. more police can reduce crime, but it is costly c. single-officer patrols are more efficient than two-officer patrols d. crime rates are correlated with police/population ratios

Q: The Cincinnati Initiative to Reduce Violence was more effective in the long term than the Boston Gun Project because it a. focused on a lower-crime area b. created an organizational structure designed to ensure its continuity c. maintained long-term relationships between police officers and gang members d. relied on careful planning and a focus on specific people, locations and crimes

Q: Effectively, predictive policing differs little from a. smart policing techniques that involve careful planning b. the effects of residual deterrence c. using common sense to prevent crime d. crackdowns and stop-and-frisk policies

Q: The goal of predictive policing is to a. focus police efforts geographically and on social problems b. prevent crimes by foreseeing when and where they will happen c. reduce crime by targeting specific repeat offenders d. increase the police/population ratio in socially disorganized areas

Q: The strategy of "pulling levers" refers to a. using all potential violations by the target b. removing all barriers to police activity c. working with community leaders to reduce crime d. increasing the police/population ratio in social disorganized areas

Q: A major concern about COMPSTAT's effectiveness in NYC is that a. its findings cannot be replicated b. it ignores the importance of community relations c. the police did not fully understand how to use the computer system d. there is no way to show that the crime drop was due to COMPSTAT and not to other factors

Q: A review of 27 studies on the relationship between the number of police officers and the crime rate found a. in 20% of studies more police correlated with lower crime rates b. in 45% of studies more police correlated with higher crime rates c. in 55% of studies more police correlated with higher crime rates d. in 95% of studies more police correlated with lower crime rates