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Criminal Law
Q:
Describe victim compensation programs and evaluate how well they impact victim attitudes toward the criminal justice system.
Q:
Explain the value of serving special populations of crime victims.
Q:
Discuss the reasons why the victim has had no role in modern Anglo-American law.
Q:
Today, how common are written policies on domestic violence in police departments?a. they are still quite uncommonb. they are common in urban areas, but rare in rural areasc. they are nearly universald. they are common in "liberal" states, but rare in "conservative" states
Q:
The evidence on victims' voice laws shows that they have ________ effect on serious crime.
a. an inverse
b. no discernible
c. a direct and strong
d. a direct but weak
Q:
Broad, "get tough" policies that have proved ineffective in reducing crime and assisting victims include
a. sex offender registration and notification laws
b. repealing the exclusionary rule
c. preventive detention
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Q:
The Elderly Victims Emergency Security Fund (EVESF) in Philadelphia succeeded in reducing incidences of violence against the elderly by
a. providing doormen to their residences
b. installing or replacing door locks
c. educating them about fraud schemes
d. intervening in cases of familial emotional abuse and neglect
Q:
In a 2000 study of nursing home residents, ____ percent of residents said that they had been abused.
a. 14
b. 25
c. 30
d. 44
Q:
A survey of sixty-two victim service programs in North Carolina found that
a. overall, victims were satisfied with the CJS system
b. the programs were equally helpful to victims and witnesses
c. virtually all victims were made aware of their right to make a victim-impact statement
d. none of the above
Q:
A study of parole hearings in Pennsylvania found that victim impact statements
a. had an insignificant effect on the chances of an offender being paroled
b. had a very significant effect on the chances of an offender being paroled
c. slightly increased the chance of a property offender being paroled
d. had no effect on the chances of a sex offender being paroled
Q:
A study of Ohio felony cases in the late 1980s found that victim impact statements were submitted in __________ of the casesa. none b. few c. halfd. most
Q:
A national study of victim notification and victims' voice laws found that
a. a large proportion of victims participate in the bail hearing, but participation decreases with each subsequent stage of criminal justice case processing
b. 90% of victims were notified about bail and sentencing hearings, but only 20% were notified about parole hearings
c. victims who were notified reported greater confidence in the police and less fear of crime
d. most victims made an impact statement at sentencing but few did so at parole hearings
Q:
In Booth v. Maryland the court
a. reversed a death sentence because of statements read to the jury about the victim
b. declared the reading of statements to the jury about the victim constitutional
c. ruled that victim-impact statements were not unconstitutional
d. ruled that victim-impact statements were constitutional
Q:
Among the goals of including victims' voices in the justice system is to
a. end the isolation of victims in the CJS and provide procedural justice
b. provide a fair and balanced approach of retribution
c. ensure procedural justice for the defendant through impact statements
d. none of the above
Q:
Victims' voice laws
a. are required under the Sixth Amendment to the Constitution
b. seek to expand the victims' voice in bail, sentencing and parole decisions
c. were designed for the purposes of getting tough and promoting retribution
d. were prohibited and ruled unconstitutional in Payne v. Tennessee
e. all of the above
Q:
Evaluations of victim compensation programs
a. make them the most popular victims' programs
b. show that compensated victims have more favorable attitudes toward the CJS
c. are more favorable for state-sponsored programs than federal programs
d. have not been favorable as many requests are denied due to insufficient documentation
Q:
As of 2013, compensation programs around the country grant victims of crime almosta. $500 million yearly b. $50 million yearly c. $5 million yearlyd. $500,000 yearly
Q:
The first victims' compensation law was passed in 1965 bya. New York b. Illinois c. Californiad. Florida
Q:
The elderly are particularly vulnerable to certain crimes, such asa. sexual assault b. car theft c. burglaryd. healthcare fraud
Q:
A study of protective orders in one state found that
a. victims who made protective orders perceived a greater likelihood of being stalked and threatened
b. they did not lead to reduced fear of violence against those who placed the orders
c. it reduced reoffending due to surveillance of offenders
d. as a whole, the subjects experienced lower rates of violence
Q:
An evaluation of the Houston experiment that involved police officers contacting victims to express sympathy and offer further assistance or information found
a. victims who were contacted expressed less fear of crime than those not recontacted
b. victims who were recontacted expressed greater confidence in police than those not recontacted
c. it met none of its goals and made some victims more fearful than those not recontacted
d. victims reported that they preferred to be left alone
Q:
One notable problem with victim notification programs is
a. the administrative burden it places on police departments
b. the constitutionality of the programs
c. they fail to offer concurrent social support to the victims
d. that they display a racial bias
Q:
Victims' service programs are partially funded by
a. the 1987 Booth v. Maryland case
b. the 1984 Victims of Crime Act
c. the 1983 Office for Victims of Crime
d. the 1982 President's Task Force on Victims of Crime
Q:
A major contributor to the problem of crime among the Native American population is
a. distrust of police
b. widespread ignorance of laws
c. discriminatory laws
d. geographical remoteness
Q:
Elderly people have the lowest violent crime victimization rate among all age groups, likely because
a. they are less likely than other populations to report crimes perpetrated against them
b. they have learned how to avoid victimization
c. members of our society generally respect their elders
d. they remain inside at night, due to a fear of crime
Q:
The most immediate needs for juvenile runaways and throwaways are
a. treatment for alcohol or drug abuse and food
b. shelter and food
c. protection from crime and psychological intervention
d. family intervention and police protection
Q:
Examples of victims' voice laws include
a. police/victim recontact programs
b. victim-offender mediation
c. statements made at bail and parole hearings
d. fear reduction programs
Q:
The traditional response of the police to domestic violence incidents had been
a. to attend to the victim, but not to the offender
b. to attend to the offender, but not to the victim
c. to refer families to social service agencies
d. a no-arrest approach
Q:
Examples of victims' services include
a. longer prison sentences
b. financial compensation and counseling
c. victim impact statements
d. all of the above
Q:
The impact of crime victims' laws and programs can be evaluated from three different perspectives: impact on the crime victims, impact on the CJS, and
a. psychological effects on the victims
b. impact on offenders' sentencing
c. crime reduction
d. impact on community-police relationships
Q:
By the early 1990s every state had
a. passed victims' rights laws
b. laws permitting victim impact statements
c. legal challenges against the victim's rights laws
d. amended their constitution to include some victims' rights
Q:
A professional public official handles criminal cases with the important purpose of
a. removing vengeance from the criminal justice process
b. ensuring the likelihood of justice due to his/her training and experience
c. establishing that crime is an offense against society as a whole
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Q:
The Victims' Rights Movement emerged in thea. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980sd. 1990s
Q:
The underlying assumption of broad "get tough" laws is that incapacitating offenders will reduce crime and therefore reduce the number of crime victims and to date this approach has been successful.
Q:
Victims' rights laws include notification regarding bail, sentencing, and release from prison.
Q:
Among the goals of victims' voice laws are to give victims a feeling of participation in the justice system and ensure offenders do not get off too easily.
Q:
Federal funding for victim compensation programs are derived from fines and forfeitures and have specific documentation procedures.
Q:
Offenses against people with disabilities are reported to the police less often than offenses against non-disabled people.
Q:
The incidence of intimate partner violence was not reduced between 1994 and 2010.
Q:
Studies have proven that the mandatory arrest of domestic violence offenders results in a reduction of crime.
Q:
Before the 1970s, domestic violence had not been recognized as a major social problem.
Q:
Victim service programs include domestic violence shelters, financial compensation for victims, and witness assistance programs.
Q:
A victims' rights clause has been added to the U.S. Constitution.
Q:
By the early 1990s all states had passed victims' rights laws.
Q:
Liberals have dominated the victims' rights movement, but other political groups including feminists have also been active.
Q:
Historically victims represented themselves before judges but in modern Anglo-American law there is no formal role for victims.
Q:
Defend the argument that limiting appeals will not reduce serious crime.
Q:
Compare and contrast the actual effects of Alaska's plea bargaining ban and King County's reform of plea negotiations.
Q:
Explain the costs and benefits of adopting the GBMI verdict.
Q:
Defend the argument that defendants who successfully use the insanity defense are not beating the system.
Q:
Defend the argument that special prosecution units do not result in any better or worse results than traditional prosecutions.
Q:
One of the factors noted in the chapter that explains why so few cases are appealed isa. most inmates are executed before they are able to file appealsb. inmates are too poor and uneducated to hire attorneysc. most convictions are obtained through plea bargainingd. most inmates adapt to the routine of prison and want to stay
Q:
The effect of the 1996 Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act is difficult to determine becausea. it limits the time between crime and punishment b. it was repealed immediately because it negates the right to habeas corpus c. capital punishment fell out of favor a few years after the law was passedd. courtroom work groups chose to circumvent the law
Q:
The chapter reported appeals to be rarely used with the exception ofa. celebrated cases and civil disputes b. death row inmates and writ writers c. habeas corpus petitionsd. due process challenges
Q:
A study of habeas corpus petitions found that
a. they represented 4% of the civil court case filings in U.S. District Courts
b. the most frequent claim was ineffective assistance of counsel
c. only 1% of them succeeded
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Q:
The Supreme Court decision Fay v. Noia would be most disliked by whom?a. prosecutors b. liberals c. conservativesd. inmates
Q:
The writ of habeas corpus
a. is a device to challenge the detention of a person taken into custody
b. is a three-year statute of limitations regarding post-conviction appeals
c. was rejected by the Supreme Court in Fay v. Noia
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Q:
Conservatives feel that post-conviction appeals are
a. necessary to minimize the occurrence of mistakes
b. a loophole that undermines the deterrent effect
c. a waste of time since so few are successful
d. a good way to give the impression that justice is being done
Q:
In studies of plea bargaining, it has been found
a. that abolishing plea negotiations reduced serious crimes
b. a vast change in the way the courtroom workgroup occurred
c. a high degree of regularity and predictability occurs in the disposition of cases
d. that the ability to predict the outcome is based on all charges filed
Q:
Walker maintains that, based on the evidence,
a. plea bargaining is a phantom loophole
b. abolishing plea bargaining will reduce serious crime
c. plea bargaining allows serious offenders to beat the system
d. abolishing plea bargaining will reduce less serious crime
Q:
An evaluation of King County's reform of plea bargaining found
a. bans on plea bargaining were unconstitutional and are quickly overturned
b. crime was reduced because defendants who had previously been treated leniently went to prison which produced both a general deterrent and incapacitated dangerous offenders
c. the plea bargaining charging guidelines significantly changed how cases were handled
d. high consistency among cases as the courtroom workgroup collaborated on appropriate charges and punishment
Q:
Plea bargaining reform in Washington included
a. a ban on gun-related plea bargaining
b. a highly structured and horizontal process of handling cases
c. less supervision for attorneys
d. a vertical approach to prosecution
Q:
What happened when plea bargaining was banned in Alaska?
a. case disposition time increased
b. the number of defendants demanding trials tripled
c. less serious offenders were punished more severely
d. plea bargaining became a hidden process
Q:
The most significant result of the ban on plea bargaining in Alaska was that
a. it increased the number of trials for defendants charged with serious crimes
b. it increased sentence length for defendants charged with serious crimes
c. it had no impact on defendants charged with serious crimes or substantial criminal records
d. it closed the loophole and got tough on prior offenders charged with serious crimes
Q:
One surprising result of the ban on plea bargaining was that
a. cases moved through the courts faster than before
b. discretion shifted upstream and police officers made fewer arrests
c. the increase in trials increased case processing time
d. prosecutors dismissed cases earlier and more quickly
Q:
As a result of the plea bargaining ban in Alaska
a. the rate of dismissals remained consistently low
b. the rate of dismissals remained consistently high
c. the rate of dismissals increased as predicted
d. the rate of dismissals decreased surprisingly
Q:
When Alaska banned plea bargaining
a. the courtroom work group evaded the ban
b. the criminal courts collapsed
c. there was a dramatic change in the rate of guilty pleas
d. trials increased slightly
Q:
What percent of all felony cases in large urban courts were settled by a guilty plea in 2006?a. almost none b. a small minority c. halfd. the vast majority
Q:
The insanity defense has been misinterpreted and abused bya. defendants b. the courtroom work group c. the publicd. politicians and journalists
Q:
The real function of the GBMI verdict is that it is
a. cheaper to implement than NGRI
b. symbolic to appease public opinion
c. what the courtroom workgroup is doing
d. intended to reduce serious crime
Q:
GBMI is a bogus reform because
a. research demonstrates that the courtroom work group evades it
b. it allows defendants to claim they are incompetent to stand trial and essentially beat the rap
c. it affects defendants who would have been found guilty, not defendants who would have been found NGRI
d. successful use of the insanity defense actually results in time spent in a mental hospital that is similar to what a guilty offender would serve in prison
Q:
__________ has three flaws including that it does not guarantee treatment for the person who uses it.a. GBMI b. NGRI c. insanity defensed. banning the insanity defense
Q:
Currently, insanity is a(n) _____(1)_____ defense not a(n) _____(2)_____ defense.a. (1) affirmative (2) ordinary b. (1) over used (2) rarely used c. (1) rich person's (2) poor person'sd. (1) extraordinary (2) ordinary
Q:
A recent review of the literature concluded that the recidivism rate for persons acquitted by reason of insanity wasa. greater than that of felons b. no greater than that of felons c. less than that of felonsd. none of the above
Q:
Steadman found that defendants claiming they were incompetent to stand trial spent how much time committed to an institution prior to trial?a. 2 days b. 2 weeks c. 2 monthsd. 2 years
Q:
The landmark Supreme Court case of Baxstrom v. Herold
a. forced the release of persons held for long periods of time in mental hospitals and necessitated development of new procedures for continued confinement
b. held offenders must pay for their psychiatric treatment where the state pays for incarceration
c. held mentally ill offenders can be forced to take medications to help in their own defense
d. allowed for the GBMI verdict
Q:
Persons hospitalized after being found not guilty by reason of insanity
a. can be released in as short as one week and most of them stay less than one month
b. must pay for their psychiatric treatment where the state pays for incarceration
c. spend more time confined in hospitals than comparable offenders sent to prison
d. have usually feigned mental illness and escaped punishment through this loophole
Q:
Despite the fact that the insanity defense is raised in less than 1% of all criminal indictments, one poll found that people believed nearly __% of all criminal defendants used it.a. 95 b. 66 c. 87d. 40
Q:
Changes in the insanity defense have included efforts toa. shift the burden of proof to the defendant in such cases b. abolish the insanity defense c. allow for a "guilty by mentally ill" verdictd. all of the above
Q:
In the early 1980s __________ sparked a national outcry and changes to laws on the insanity defense.
a. news coverage of the inhumane treatment of people in mental hospitals
b. research on the number of defendants who feign insanity to beat the rap
c. John W. Hinckley's acquittal for attempting to assassinate President Ronald Reagan
d. all of the above