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Criminal Law
Q:
Within a reasonable time, but not later than _____ days after the termination of the period of an order, an inventory must be served on the persons named in the order and on such other parties to intercepted communications as the judge determines in the interest of justice.
a. twenty
b. thirty
c. sixty
d. ninety
Q:
All are qualities that a sergeant must possess except:
a. intelligence
b. dedication
c. integrity
d. likeableness
Q:
What is an example of an administrative unit in a police department?
a. records
b. alcohol testing
c. personnel
d. community relations
Q:
Materials that are made inaccessible to anyone without a special court order are said to be _____.
a. under lock and key
b. on-hold
c. under seal
d. en todos
Q:
An example of an auxiliary unit in a police department would be:
a. criminal investigations
b. community relations
c. communications
d. training
Q:
Neither Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 nor the Fourth Amendment requires law enforcement to _____.
a. obtain a judicial order to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications
b. obtain judicial authorization to covertly enter the premises to install a listening device
c. first receive administrative authorization to apply for an interception order
d. conduct themselves in a way that minimizes the interception of communications not subject to the interception order
Q:
An example of an operations unit in a police department would be:
a. patrol
b. communications
c. training
d. internal affairs
Q:
Generally the most police activity occurs on what tour?
a. day
b. evening
c. midnight
d. weekends
Q:
Under the exigent circumstances exception, a law enforcement officer must apply for an interception order _____ after the interception has occurred or begins to occur.
a. immediately
b. within forty-eight hours
c. as soon as practicable
d. when prudent as deemed by the officer
Q:
Provide examples that would illustrate a minimum of three different constitutional limits on the seizure of items found in a search.
Q:
The most common problems for police officers during this shift are disorderly and intoxicated people at home and on the street, domestic violence, disorderly tavern patrons, commercial burglaries, prostitution, and drug sales.
a. day
b. evening
c. midnight
d. weekends
Q:
The group of officers supervised by a particular sergeant is called a:
a. department
b. squad
c. platoon
d. precinct
Q:
What is the purpose and nature of Rule 41?
Q:
What is meant by the "curtilage" around a home? Briefly explain what is meant by appurtenant property.
Q:
The smallest geographical area a single patrol unit can patrol effectively is called a:
a. precinct
b. sector
c. beat
d. zone
Q:
The police strike of 1919 occurred in:
a. New York
b. Pittsburgh
c. Chicago
d. Boston
Q:
Provides examples which illustrate circumstances in which law enforcement authorities may be legally authorized to make a "sneak and peak" covert entry into private property. Explain the use of "sneak and peak" warrants by law enforcement prior to the passing of the USA PATRIOT Act.
Q:
What is "knock and announce". Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of such a rule.
Q:
The process of removing sworn officers from non-enforcement jobs and replacing them by non-sworn personnel is called:
a. rationalization
b. civilianization
c. upgrading
d. lateral transfer
Q:
The collection of all officers working a particular shift is called a:
a. squad
b. precinct
c. platoon
d. staff
Q:
What rule of law developed from the Segura case? What potential impact do you see for police officers? Explain your reasoning.
Q:
According to your text, the average police officer is assigned to which duty in a police department?
a. traffic
b. patrol
c. foot
d. investigations
Q:
Select an item within the room you are currently in. Write a description sufficient to satisfy the particularity requirement of the Fourth Amendment.
Q:
What is the purpose and rationale underlying the concept of an anticipatory search warrant?
Q:
Who is generally in charge of a squad?
a. master patrol officer
b. corporal
c. lieutenant
d. sergeant
Q:
The first supervisor in the police chain of command is the:
a. detective
b. captain
c. lieutenant
d. sergeant
Q:
Outline the process of applying for a search warrant. Include the considerations a law enforcement officer must be aware of if (s)he is to be successful in obtaining a search warrant.
Q:
Explain the difference between search warrants in colonial America and search warrants that are issued today.
Q:
Who is in charge at a crime scene?
a. captain
b. lieutenant
c. sergeant
d. detective or investigator
Q:
Of the choices below, the standard order of civil service ranks within a police department from lowest to highest are:
a. officer, sergeant, lieutenant, captain, chief
b. corporal, officer, sergeant, lieutenant, captain, chief
c. captain, officer, sergeant, corporal, lieutenant, chief
d. officer, sergeant, corporal, lieutenant, captain, chief
Q:
Regardless of the justification for a delay, warrants must be executed before probable cause dissipates, a process commonly referred to as going ___________.
Q:
To avoid the severity of total repression of evidence when a small mistake is made in a search warrant, the courts have adopted partial suppression, better known as ___________ or severability.
Q:
Police officers are considered _____ members of the department.
a. sworn
b. non-sworn
c. civilian
d. local
Q:
The police structure in the United States is:
a. military
b. civilian
c. quasi-military
d. hemi-military
Q:
A(n) ___________ condition is a condition precedent, other than the passage of time, which will establish probable cause to conduct a search and/or seizure.
Q:
A search warrant based on an affidavit showing probable cause that evidence of a certain crime will be located at a specific place in the future is known as a(n) ___________ search warrant.
Q:
According to your text, the best example of police power is:
a. the ability to search and seize evidence
b. the ability to take another's life
c. the power of arrest
d. the power to convict a citizen of a crime
Q:
The person swearing-out an affidavit is referred to as the ___________.
Q:
The civil service system was created by the:
a. Pendleton Act
b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. Fourteenth Amendment
d. Civil Service Act of 1911
Q:
The number of officers or subordinates a supervisor can supervise effectively is called:
a. chain of command
b. organizational index
c. span of control
d. effective level of supervision
Q:
A ___________ of property occurs when there is some meaningful interference with an individual's possessory interests in that property.
Q:
Even though the search warrant on its face is still valid, the executing officer must nevertheless determine if the probable cause has become ___________ before beginning the search.
Q:
The management concept that says that each individual in an organization is supervised by one immediate supervisor or boss who in turn reports to a higher supervisor is termed:
a. ladder of command
b. hierarchy of command
c. span of control
d. chain of command
Q:
A(n) ___________ search allows items discovered during the execution of a covert entry warrant to be seized if there is a "reasonable necessity for the seizure."
Q:
The first supervisor in the police chain of command is the captain.
Q:
A(n) ___________ search warrant specifically authorizes officers to enter unoccupied premises, search for specified evidence, and then leavewithout seizing the evidence they find, and without leaving a trace that an entry has been made.
Q:
The police officer, trooper, or deputy sheriff is the most important person in the police organization.
Q:
Probable cause is a series of facts that would indicate to a "reasonable person" that a crime is being committed or was committed and that a certain person is committing or did commit it.
Q:
A ___________ is used to allow a criminal suspect to challenge the sufficiency of the information upon which an affidavit supporting a warrant is based.
Q:
Most police departments, particularly larger departments, are governed by civil service regulations.
Q:
Officers must follow knock and announce requirements even if they believe no one is in the premises to be searched.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If a portion of a warrant is deficient with respect to the probable cause and particularity requirements then the entire warrant will be judged to be constitutionally invalid.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Shared leadership attained renewed interest in the 1980s and 1990s in response to the success Japanese industry seemed to be having with empowerment strategies such as TQM and QC.
Q:
A search warrant commands that the officer bring any seized property before the judicial authority named in the warrant.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A civil service system solves all managerial problems with promotion, demotion, and dismissal.
Q:
In every jurisdiction, the judicial officers authorized to issue a search warrant are the same officers authorized to issue an arrest warrant.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Modern police organizations can be considered bureaucracies.
Q:
Edwin Southerland, who many call "the father of sociology," gave us the classic features of the bureaucracy.
Q:
A search warrant can become invalid because the probable cause upon which it is based has become stale.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The freshness of the information forming the basis for probable cause is more important in applications for search warrants than for arrest warrants.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Police unions are predominantly local organizations that bargain and communicate with the local police department and the mayor's or chief's office.
Q:
All states in the United States permit lateral transfers.
Q:
In the case of Franks v. Delaware, the Court determined that if a search warrant was issued based on some inadvertent exaggeration by the applying officer of the factual basis for the warrant, the seized items must be suppressed as evidence.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Fourth Amendment sets probable cause as the minimum standard for issuing warrants.
a. True
b. False
Q:
All police departments are governed by civil service regulations.
Q:
If a mistake is made in specifying the address on a search warrant, the warrant is automatically invalid.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In some jurisdictions reserve officers are paid, and in some they are not.
Q:
The number of hours a search lasted is the major factor used to determine the reasonableness of the duration of a search.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The best way to think of the division of labor in an organization is to ask the question, "Who is going to do what, when, and where?"
Q:
A vast majority of all government employees at the federal, state, and local levels are covered by the civil service system.
Q:
To obtain a valid anticipatory search warrant, _____
a. there must be a fair probability that specific contraband will be found if the triggering event occurs and a fair probability that the triggering event will in fact occur
b. the police must have corroborated information from at least two different informants
c. police must have sufficient basis to believe that the evidence cannot be obtained any other way
d. the police must have established reasonable suspicion
Q:
In the Federal system, the codified procedures and rules relating to search and seizure are found _____.
a. scattered throughout the codes of the U.S. code
b. scattered throughout the various court cases related to criminal procedure
c. in the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, Rule 41
d. in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, Rule 21
Q:
Most police management experts say the span of control in a police department should be one supervisor to every six to ten officers of a lower rank.
Q:
The investigative arm of the Navy and Marines is called the __________________.
Q:
Relating to arrest and search warrants, the doctrine of severability _____.
a. enables total suppression of evidence in instances where a warrant is deficient
b. allows co-defendants to be charges separately
c. allows a defendant with multiple counts to be tried separately on each count
d. allows problematic clauses of a warrant to be redacted while preserving the remaining clauses
Q:
For police to legally search areas that are appurtenant (incident to, belonging to, or going with the residence listed on the warrant):_____.
a. the appurtenant areas must be explicitly stated in the language of the warrant
b. the items that are the listed in the warrant must be capable of storage in the appurtenant areas
c. the appurtenant areas must be in plain view
d. the owner of the premises must consent tenant areas
Q:
_______________ investigate people who are illegally trafficking in government-protected animals and birds, such as falcons.
Q:
The National Park Police also serve at the _____________in New York and the Golden Gate Bridge in San Francisco.
Q:
Officers have a warrant to search a dwelling for three shotguns stolen in a burglary of a gun store. In executing the warrant, they discover many other firearms not described on the warrant, some of which they recognize immediately as having been taken in the same burglary. The officers have legal grounds to seize ______.
a. all the other firearms immediately
b. only the shotguns described on the warrant
c. the shotguns described on the warrant and may examine all the other firearms to determine if they are stolen property
d. the shotguns described on the warrant and the other firearms they recognize as stolen, but may not examine or seize the other firearms
Q:
Officers have a warrant authorizing search for narcotics allegedly being sold in a tavern. When they execute the warrant, there is a bartender and eighteen customers. Select the officers' most legally sound course of action.
a. The officers may search the premises and everyone in it for drugs.
b. The officers may search the premises for drugs and frisk the people for weapons.
c. The officers may search the premises for drugs, but need specific probable cause for each person they want to search for drugs or frisk for weapons.
d. The officers may search the premises for drugs, but need specific probable cause for each person they want to search for drugs and specific, articulable suspicion of danger to frisk for weapons.