Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Counseling
Q:
In Roper v. Simmons the Supreme Court decided that offenders cannot be sentenced to death for a crime they committed before they reached the age of eighteen.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The death penalty requires that the state terminate the life of the convicted as a form or revenge.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An ombudsman is a public official who investigates complaints against government officials and recommends corrective measures.
a. True
b. False
Q:
According to the text, inmates find litigation effective and satisfying.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Correctional searches can be done with the intent to humiliate or degrade the inmate.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Explain the four steps of the rational basis test and explain in your own words what it means for correctional practices.
Q:
In your own words, explain the Prison Litigation Reform Act (PLPA) and the relevance of the three-strikes provision as is relates to inmate lawsuits.
Q:
Staff attorneys, inmate lawyers, and law school clinics are examples of
a. legal assistance
b. mediation
c. ombudsman
d. juries
Q:
Intervention in a dispute by a third party to whom the parities in conflict submit their difference for resolution is known as
a. mediation
b. ombudsman
c. negotiation
d. resolution
Q:
In Ring v. Arizona (2002), the Supreme Court ruled who must make the crucial factual decision on whether a convicted murderer should receive the death penalty?
a. juries
b. judges
c. victims
d. probation officers
Q:
In Atkins v. Virginia (2002) the Supreme Court ruled that the execution of who was unconstitutional?
a. mentally retarded offenders
b. sex offenders
c. juvenile offenders
d. physically disabled offenders
Q:
Under the Gregg decision, states must have ________ hearings to determine guilt and the proper sentence.
a. bifurcated
b. trifurcated
c. subjective
d. no
Q:
Please identify the five constitutional amendments that can be used to protect prisoner rights. Next, give examples of how each of these amendments has been applied to prisoner issues.
Q:
List and explain the four foundations of correctional law. Be sure to provide detailed examples of each.
Q:
List and explain the four alternatives to prison litigation.
Q:
___________ are legal rules created by judges' decisions that serve to guide future judgments in cases that involve similar circumstances.
Q:
____________ contain basic principles and procedural safeguards, and they describe the institutions of government, the powers of the government, and the rights of individuals.
Q:
Under the Supreme Court decision of _____________ regarding capital punishment, states must now have two hearings: 1) to determine guilt or innocence and, if found guilty, 2) to determine the appropriate sentence.
Q:
The hands-off policy was essentially ended by the Supreme Court decision of ______________.
Q:
___________ is intervention in a dispute by a third party where those in conflict submit their differences for resolution; the decision (in the correctional setting) is binding on both parties.
Q:
The equal protection clause is found in the ________ Amendment.
Q:
On entering a correctional institution, prisoners surrender most, but not all, of their rights under the ________ Amendment.
Q:
_____________ are legal rules, usually set by an agency of the executive branch, designed to implement policies of that agency.
Q:
The circumstances in a correctional facility that, when considered as a whole, may violate the protections guaranteed by the Eighth Amendment are known as_______________.
Q:
A writ of habeas corpus requests an examination of the legality of____________.
Q:
Because of the heinous nature of the crime, the US Supreme Court has upheld that those convicted of the rape of a child can in fact be given the sentence of death.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Until the 1970s disciplinary procedures conducted in prisons could be exercised without challenge because the prisoner was legally in the hands of the state.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The most intrusive personal searches of inmates involve X-rays of the inmates' bodies.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The compelling state interest test is the current standard for the analysis of not only prisoners' First Amendment claims but other constitutional claims as well.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Prior to the 1960s, the courts maintained a hands-on policy with respect to corrections.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In 1996 Congress passed the Anti-Terrorism Act, which gives inmates one year from the time of conviction to file a federal habeas petition.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The most recent cases concerning equal protection deal with issues concerning juvenile offenders.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In 1968 the Supreme Court firmly established that racial segregation could become an official policy within prison walls to help minimize gang violence.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Fourth-Amendment rights cover prison cells.
a. True
b. False
Q:
By the end of the 1970s, federal judges had imposed changes on prisons and jails in every state.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Over the past several decades inmates have pursued rights guaranteed in the US Constitution by filing Section_____________ petitions in US federal courts.
a. 1871
b. 1964
c. 1983
d. 1976
Q:
With respect to inmate grievances, it is believed that the most difficult type of situation to resolve is ____________.
a. inmate possession of a weapon
b. inmate-on-inmate rape
c. inmate possession of drugs
d. brutality by an officer
Q:
A(n) ______________ is a public official with full authority to investigate citizens' complaints against government officials.
a. detective
b. ombudsman
c. probation officer
d. parole officer
Q:
In ___________, the Supreme Court ruled that offenders cannot be sentenced to death for a crime they committed before they reached the age of eighteen.
a. Gregg v. Georgia
b. Roper v. Simmons
c. Atkins v. Virginia
d. Ring v. Arizona
Q:
More than half of the inmates on death row are _______________.
a. Caucasian
b. African American
c. Latino
d. Asian
Q:
In _____________, the Supreme Court ruled juries, not judges, must make the crucial factual decision on whether a convicted murderer should receive the death penalty.
a. Gregg v. Georgia
b. Roper v. Simmons
c. Atkins v. Virginia
d. Ring v. Arizona
Q:
The courts have recognized all of the following specific interests as justifying some restrictions on the constitutional rights of prisoners, except
a. the maintenance of institutional order.
b. the maintenance of institutional security.
c. the rehabilitation of inmates.
d. the carrying out of retributive punishments to deter future criminal acts.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the three steps most corrections systems use when handling the inmate grievance process?
a. A staff member or committee receives the complaint.
b. A staff member or committee makes a decision regarding the complaint.
c. An officer conducts a hearing on the legality of the complaint after consulting state or federal legal counsel.
d. A staff member or committee investigates the complaint.
Q:
Which of the following alternatives to litigation has NOT been incorporated into state correctional systems?
a. legal assistance
b. plea bargaining
c. grievance procedures
d. use of an ombudsman
Q:
The number of Section-1983 lawsuits among both state and federal prisoners dropped dramatically following the passage of the _______________________.
a. Correctional Reform Act of 1971
b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. Prisoner Rights Act of 1984
d. Prison Litigation Reform Act of 1996
Q:
_____________ are laws that are created by local, state, and federal governments.
a. Doctrines
b. Statutes
c. Regulations
d. Constitutions
Q:
In ____________ (1995), Iowa female inmates argued that their equal protection rights under the Fourteenth Amendment were violated because programs and services were not at the same level as those provided male inmates. The court ruled against the female inmates, citing that no invidious discrimination was present.
a. Hutto v. Finney
b. Sandin v. Conner
c. Pargo v. Elliot
d. Wolff v. McDonnell
Q:
In Wolff vs. McDonnell (1974), the court created four legal procedures to enhance the protection of an inmate who has been accused of a serious prison violation. Which of the following is NOT one of these four procedures?
a. The prisoner must be given twenty-four hour's written notice of the charges.
b. The prisoner has the right to present witnesses and document evidence in his defense against the charges.
c. The prisoner has the right to a hearing before a felony trial judge.
d. The prisoner has the right to receive a written statement from that body concerning the outcome of the hearing.
Q:
The combination of factors that federal courts examine to see if conditions or events constitute cruel and unusual punishment are referred to as
a. totality of conditions.
b. totality of the circumstances.
c. clear and present danger.
d. compelling state interest.
Q:
In Hudson v. Palmer, (1984), the Supreme Court held that the rules of the ___________ Amendment do not apply to a search of a convicted prisoner's cell.
a. Eighth
b. Fourth
c. Sixth
d. First
Q:
All of the following are considered to be alternatives to inmate litigation, except
a. direct conversation with the assistant or deputy warden.
b. the use of an ombudsman.
c. legal assistance.
d. inmate grievance procedures.
Q:
Case law decisions create ___________ that are legal rules that can be used to make future judgments on cases that involve similar circumstances.
a. patterns
b. precedents
c. standards
d. examples
Q:
Up until the 1960s, the US federal court system practiced a ___________ policy with respect to corrections; ultimately giving more power and discretion back to individual state correctional systems.
a. maternal-like
b. don"t ask, don"t tell
c. get-tough
d. hands-off
Q:
Legal rules produced by judges' decisions are referred to as ___________.
a. common law
b. statutes
c. case law
d. regulations
Q:
In which case did the Supreme Court rule that prisoners who adhere to nontraditional religious beliefs may not be denied the opportunity to practice their own religion?
a. Mapp v. Ohio
b. Cruz v. Beto
c. Bell v. Wolfish
d. Pate v. Cooper
Q:
In regard to an inmate's First Amendment rights, ________ requires that a regulation provide a reasonable method of advancing a legitimate institutional goal.
a. the rational basis test
b. the totality of the circumstances
c. the compelling interest test
d. the least restrictive test
Q:
In ______________, the US Supreme Court ruled that while the death penalty was constitutional, the way it was used constituted cruel and unusual punishment.
a. Abney v. California
b. Klenowski v. West Virginia
c. Furman v. Georgia
d. Bell v. South Carolina
Q:
The first successful prisoners' rights cases of the 1970s involved
a. a lack of recreational opportunities.
b. brutality and inhumane living conditions.
c. freedom of speech issues.
d. religious expression rights.
Q:
Inmates who assist other inmates in preparing necessary legal documents or give other help in legal matters are referred to as __________________.
a. jailhouse lawyers
b. legal aids
c. prison paralegals
d. prison librarians
Q:
A judicial order asking correctional officials to produce the prisoner and to give reasons to justify continued confinement is called a writ of_______________.
a. actus reus
b. habeas corpus
c. corpus delicti
d. lex talionis
Q:
What was granted, excusing Abby from her offense?a. pardonb. parolec. probationd. pass
Q:
Austin and Abby were incarcerated for ten years for a crime they committed at the age of eighteen. At the age of fifty, the conviction was removed from Austin's record per court order. The governor also excused Abby's offense.How was the conviction removed from Austin's record?a. expungementb. expirationc. decayd. dissolvement
Q:
Qualification for parole officers vary by state, but what is usually nota requirement?a. bachelor's degreeb. nopast felony convictionc. law enforcement experienced. law degree
Q:
Revocation seldom results from a single rules violation because
a. prisons are far too crowded
b. there is not enough evidence to find them in violation
c. parole officers don't care to violate
d. they only violate offenders who committed person related offenses
Q:
The Second Chance Act of 2007 is designed to assist offenders with
a. successful reentry into the community.
b. chemical health programming while in prison.
c. have their case dismissed.
d. DNA collection.
Q:
Which is not a criterion that guides release decisions?
a. age and gender
b. insight into causes of past criminal conduct
c. history of community adjustment
d. physical, mental and emotional health
Q:
Inmates who have maxed out are released
a. unconditionally
b. with conditions
c. to a local jail
d. only if they completed treatment
Q:
The effectiveness of corrections is usually measured by _____________.
a. crime rates
b. rates of recidivism
c. probation rates
d. uniform crime rates
Q:
Restrictions that parolees must legally obey after being released are referred to as ________.
a. exiting guidelines
b. conditions of release
c. parole regulations
d. post-release policy
Q:
Most incidents or actions described as technical violations that result in violation of probation, can be categorized as______________.
a. non-criminal infractions
b. minor felonies
c. criminal misdemeanors
d. major felonies
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the options frequently applied by parole agencies when parolees violate the conditions of their release?
a. Note the violation and increase supervision instead of revocation of parole.
b. Seek advice from the sentencing judge, but have no formal revocation hearing.
c. Note the violation but take no official action.
d. Return the parolee to prison.
Q:
Nationally, 35 percent of all new prison admissions are violators of conditional release; of this group, nearly _________ are returned to prison for technical violations.
a. one-fifth
b. one-third
c. one-half
d. two-thirds
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the possible harsh realities that a newly released prisoner may face once paroled?
a. barriers to success
b. the strangeness of reentry
c. unmet personal needs
d. missing the physical safety of prison
Q:
A major criticism of discretionary release is that it has shifted responsibility for many primary criminal justice decisions from a _________ to a___________.
a. prosecutor; parole board
b. prosecutor; judge
c. judge; parole board
d. parole board; judge
Q:
In theory, parole boards evaluate an offender's progress toward ___________and readiness to abide by laws.
a. restoration
b. reintegration
c. rehabilitation
d. reentry
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the major release criteria considered for a potential parolee?
a. prior criminal record
b. history of community adjustment
c. adequacy of parole plan
d. credit and driving records
Q:
Parole officers are usually asked to play two roles: ________and_________.
a. cop; social worker
b. social worker; mentor
c. mentor; cop
d. cop; teacher
Q:
Eligibility for an appearance before the parole board is a function of all the following items except
a. an inmate's conduct before prison.
b. demographic data.
c. statutory criteria.
d. the individual sentence.
Q:
When discretionary release is used, the parole board's power is much like that of the ________.
a. jury
b. probation officer
c. prosecutor
d. sentencing judge
Q:
______________release occurs when the sentencing judge requires a period of post-custody supervision in the community.
a. Unconditional
b. Discretionary
c. Probation
d. Mandatory