Q&A Hero

Q: Shock incarceration occurs in prison farms. a. True b. False

Q: The defense of mistake ultimately rests on proving a(n): a. presumption of guilt b. lack of intent c. existence of extenuating circumstances d. post facto affirmative presumption of innocence due to entrapment

Q: In a maximum-security prison, most inmates are in lockdown 23 hours per day. a. True b. False

Q: Individuals that claim insanity as a criminal defense, may not have the ability to form .a. mala in se b. mens reac. actus reus d. stare decisis

Q: Narcotics control laws, health and safety regulations, and sanitation laws are examples of what legal principle?a. Recklessness b. Criminal negligencec. Malice d. Strict liability

Q: New generation jails are designed to increase and improve security while giving inmates a sense of privacy. a. True b. False

Q: Certain statutory offenses exist in which mensrea is not essential. These offenses fall within a category known as:a. torts. b. strict liability crimes.c. malainsecrimes. d. staredecisis.

Q: European Americans make up 47 percent of the jail population, so a disproportionate number of jail inmates are minority. a. True b. False

Q: The early twentieth century was a time of stark contrasts in the US prison system. a. True b. False

Q: The Auburn system used tiered cells, congregate living conditions, group activities, and silence as punishment. a. True b. False

Q: The term actusreus refers to the:a. measurement of mental ability b. exclusion of omissionc. guilty person d. guilty act

Q: The individual's state of mind or intent to commit a crime is formally referred to as:a. staredecisis b. malainsec. mensrea d. actusreus

Q: Which of the following statements is false regarding the comparison of felonies and misdemeanors? a. A felony is an offense generally punishable by death or imprisonment in a penitentiary, whereas a misdemeanor is generally punishable by a fine or imprisonment elsewhere than in a penitentiary. b. A person convicted of a felony may be barred from certain fields of employment or some professions, whereas a person convicted of a misdemeanor is not. c. An arrest for a felony or misdemeanor may be made regardless of whether the crime was committed in the officer's presence, as long as the officer had reasonable grounds to believe that the person committed the crime. d. Distinguishing between a felony and a misdemeanor is sometimes difficult.

Q: John Augustus revolutionized corrections by calling for the renovation of the prison system in 1790. a. True b. False

Q: Medium-security prisons have liberal furlough but strict visiting policies. a. True b. False

Q: Private prisons are called private because the food and medical services are provided by private contractors. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following is not legally considered a crime? a. Manufacturing dangerous drugs b. Selling dangerous drugs c. Being addicted to dangerous drugs d. All of these are legally considered crimes.

Q: What is the most common definition of a felony? a. A crime punishable in the statute by death or imprisonment in a state prison. b. Any crime punishable by imprisonment in a jail or state prison. c. A crime punishable by grand jury indictment. d. Any crime for which one can be imprisoned for more than three years in prison.

Q: Sue has committed robbery with deadly weapon. This would be considered a crimea. Mala in se b. Nolo Prequic. Mala Prohibitum d. Civil

Q: Some pregnant women are allowed to keep their babies in prison with them. a. True b. False

Q: The Sumners"Ashurst Act made it a federal offense to transport interstate commerce goods made in prison for private use. a. True b. False

Q: The federal government has closed its boot camp program. a. True b. False

Q: The term staredecisismeans:a. an eye for an eye. b. inherently evil.c. a statute created by a legislative body. d. to stand by decided cases.

Q: Regardless of its source, all criminal laws in the U.S. must conform to the rules and dictates of the:a. U.S. Attorney's Office b. U.S. Court of Appealsc. United States Senate d. U.S. Constitution

Q: The amount of time served in prison has decreased. a. True b. False

Q: The number of adult females in jail has been growing at a much faster rate than males. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following is not a source of criminal law?a. Common law b. Biblical decreec. Statutes d. Case decisions

Q: The law today can generally be divided into four broad categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? a. Procedural criminal law b. Substantive criminal law c. Civil law d. Procedural civil law

Q: Boot camps are a form of shock incarceration. a. True b. False

Q: The rehabilitation movement of the 1960s was guided by the medical model. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following statements does not apply to criminal law?a. Crime is a public offense.b. The right of enforcement belongs to the state.c. Fines go to the state.d. Both parties can appeal.

Q: Medium-security prisons promote greater treatment efforts than maximum-security prisons. a. True b. False

Q: The branch of law that defines crimes and their punishment?a. Martial Law b. Substantive criminal lawc. Civil Law d. Public Law

Q: The Quakers pressured the state legislature to improve conditions in the prisons in Pennsylvania. a. True b. False

Q: American civil law is primarily concerned with: a. compensating the injured party for harm. b. protecting the public against harm. c. Controlling social values and mores. d. Contracting legal obligations between aggrieved individuals.

Q: The "modern" American correctional system has its origins in New York. a. True b. False

Q: For a person to be considered to have committed a crime, some act is required to prove the actors willingness to commit harm. a. True b. False

Q: There are certain offenses in which mensreais not essential. a. True b. False

Q: Supporters of the Pennsylvania system believed that the penitentiary was truly a place to experience penitence. a. True b. False

Q: Bail is forfeited if the defendant misses the trial date. a. Trueb. False

Q: Floaters were abandoned ships anchored in harbors and used in eighteenth century England to house prisoners. a. True b. False

Q: Substantive due process refers to a citizen's right to be protected from criminal laws that may be biased, discriminatory and otherwise unfair. a. True b. False

Q: In the 1500s in Brideswell, a workhouse was built to hold those convicted of minor offenses, who would work to pay off their debt; serious offenders were held there until their execution. a. True b. False

Q: When the Supreme Court decides a case, if the justices are conservative minded, they are less likely to create new rights and privileges and more likely to restrict civil liberties. a. True b. False

Q: Penal institutions where offenders would go to be deprived of their freedom for punishment have been around since the tenth century. a. True b. False

Q: The CAN SPAM Act is legislation that attempts to reduce the amount of processed food that can be bought and sold to those that receive government assistance a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of private prisons.

Q: Discuss the benefits and shortcomings of community correctional facilities. Have these programs been effective?

Q: The Fourth Amendment limits the admissibility of confessions that have been obtained unfairly. a. True b. False

Q: Community notification laws are used to inform neighborhoods and families that there has been a formal complaint has been filed for harassment. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the advantages, disadvantages, and effectiveness (or ineffectiveness) of two alternative correctional programs.

Q: Discuss the changes in design and treatment that go along with super maximum-security prisons. Elaborate on the benefits and drawbacks of such a system.

Q: Until recently, sexual relations between consenting same-sex adults was punished as a serious felony. a. True b. False

Q: The ideas and principles that society considers important at a given time and in a given place have no bearing on a court's decision on what exactly constitutes due process in a specific case. a. True b. False

Q: Self-defense as a justification requires imminent danger. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the difference between the medical model and the penal harm model.

Q: List the five primary purposes of the nation's jails. Who are the typical jail inmates?

Q: Discuss the general conditions in a typical jail and the role of the new-generation jail in attempting to combat these problems.

Q: Entrapment is a defense against criminal culpability that is found in the Bill of Rights. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss correctional trends that have occurred during the past 50 years.

Q: An immediate relationship must always exist between the act and the actor's intent for a crime to occur. a. True b. False

Q: Feticide Law makes killing of an unborn fetus murder. a. True b. False

Q: The roots of criminal law in the United States can be directly traced to the Bible. a. True b. False

Q: Explain the influence of Quakers on the development of America's prisons.

Q: Elaborate on the history and origins of corrections in the United States, including a discussion of the Pennsylvania and Auburn systems.

Q: Used to gradually acclimate inmates to conventional society, a ________ is a community-based correctional facility that houses inmates prior to their outright release.

Q: _______is used to resolve control and shape personal interactions such as wills trusts and property ownership.

Q: Discuss the historical development of criminal law.

Q: Describe the importance of procedural due process. List the procedural due process rights that are guaranteed to an individual.

Q: Intensive physical conditioning and discipline occurs at a ______, popular in the 1980s and 1990s.

Q: "Club Fed" is a slang term for a ____________ prison.

Q: To relieve overcrowding and improve effectiveness, many jails use a modern design referred to as the ___________.

Q: Elaborate the meaning of due process through the use of an example.

Q: Holding probationers and parolees picked up for violations and waiting for a hearing is one purpose of a _____.

Q: Discuss one of the Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, or Eighth Amendments and how it serves to limit and control the manner in which the federal government operates the justice system.

Q: _____________is the philosophy that harsh treatment while serving a correctional sentence will convince offenders that crime does not pay, which will lower the chances of recidivism.

Q: Discuss the premise and outcome of the 2008 case of BazeandBowlingv.Rees

Q: The ___________ is a correctional philosophy suggesting that inmates need treatment rather than punishment to aid in their reform.

Q: Describe three tests of the insanity defense and how each is applied.

Q: The ____________ involves leasing inmates to a business for a fixed annual fee.