Q&A Hero

Q: ____________________ is defined as an organizational model marked by hierarchy and promotion on professional merit and skill. a. Keynesian paradigm b. Bureaucracy c. Privatization d. Monetarism

Q: Activities performed in direct assistance to the public are called: a. administration. b. operations. c. auxiliary services. d. fraternal procedures.

Q: In some situations, people placed in diversion programs are believed to be the ones most likely to have otherwise been dismissed after a brief hearing with a warning or small fine. Critics refer to this as: a. Widening the net. b. Misrepresenting the system. c. An abomination of justice. d. Exculpatory practices.

Q: Diversion is considered after arrest and arraignment but before: a. Grand jury indictment. b. Trial. c. The preliminary hearing. d. The bail hearing.

Q: An example of an auxiliary unit in a police department would be: a. criminal investigations. b. community relations. c. communications. d. training.

Q: Activities that benefit other units within the police department more frequently than do administrative activities are called: a. personnel processes. b. operational procedures. c. auxiliary services. d. resource functions.

Q: Which role is most problematic and controversial in plea negotiations? a. Prosecutor b. Defense attorney c. Defendant d. Defendant

Q: Which of the following is false regarding plea bargaining? a. Pleas must be made voluntarily and without pressure. b. Defendants must keep their side of the bargain to receive the promised offer of leniency. c. Accepting a guilty plea from a defendant who maintains his or her innocence is valid. d. Accepting a guilty plea from a defendant who maintains his or her innocence is valid.

Q: An example of an operations unit in a police department would be: a. patrol. b. communications. c. training. d. internal affairs.

Q: What is an example of an administrative unit in a police department? a. records b. alcohol testing c. personnel d. community relations

Q: According to the Innocence Project, which of the following is not a reason for giving a false confession to a crime? a. Potential profitability b. Coercion c. Duress d. Mental impairment

Q: Which of the following eventsduring which the judge informs the defendant of the charges against him or her and appoints counsel if one has not yet been retainedoccurs after an indictment is filed subsequent to a preliminary hearing. a. Plea bargain b. Pretrial c. Arraignment d. Bench hearing

Q: The highly organized rank structure for sworn members of a department is known as: a. functional command. b. chain of command. c. unity of command. d. supervision ratio.

Q: Police chiefs are possibly the key figure in the police organization because they: a. get paid the most. b. appear before local government agencies. c. set the vision and tone for the department. d. work shifts when officers are sick.

Q: Which procedure is often used as an alternative to the grand jury? a. Initial hearing b. Arraignment c. Preliminary hearing d. Criminal trial

Q: A patrol officer should report to his or her immediate ____________________, unless an emergency exists or speed is necessary. a. department b. sergeant c. platoon d. precinct

Q: A formal charging document, similar to an indictment, based on probable cause as determined at a preliminary hearing is called: a. An arraignment. b. Judging. c. Information. d. A warrant.

Q: Using a traditional three-tour system with one officer per beat per shift, about how many officers actually must be available to cover each beat? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Q: All information that is material and favorable to the accused defendant because it casts doubt on the defendant's guilt or on the evidence the government intends to use at trial is called: a. Exculpatory evidence. b. Fruit of the poisonous tree. c. Innocuous evidence. d. Explanatory evidence.

Q: The report of the grand jury investigation, which usually includes a recommendation of indictment, is called a: a. True bill. b. Presentment. c. Precluding statement. d. Exculpatory recommendation.

Q: The smallest geographical area a single patrol unit can patrol effectively is called a: a. precinct. b. sector. c. beat. d. zone.

Q: The grand jury originally was created as a check against the: a. Defense attorney. b. Prosecution. c. Judge. d. Magistrate.

Q: The police strike of 1919 occurred in: a. New York. b. Pittsburgh. c. Chicago. d. Boston.

Q: An entry-level police apprentice without general law enforcement powers suggested by the President's Commission on Law Enforcement and Administration of Justice is a: a. police agent. b. police officer. c. community service officer. d. reserve officer.

Q: According to early English Law, which of the following stated that no "freeman" could be seized and imprisoned unless he had been judged by his peers? a. Twelve Tables b. Treaty of Windsor c. Magna Carta d. Metropolitan Police Act

Q: Which court case upheld the use of preventive detention statutes to protect the well-being of the juvenile offender and the public? a. Burton v. Weight b. Schall v. Martin c. Creamens v. Blake d. Salerno v. Fitzsimmons

Q: The process of removing sworn officers from nonenforcement jobs and replacing them by nonsworn personnel is called: a. rationalization. b. civilianization. c. upgrading. d. lateral transfer.

Q: The collection of all officers working a particular shift is called a: a. cohort. b. precinct. c. platoon. d. staff.

Q: Laws that require that certain dangerous defendants be confined before trial for their own protection and that of the community are called: a. Preventive detention statutes. b. Avertable detention statutes. c. Exclusionary statutes. d. Avertable statutes.

Q: Defendants who are rearrested for a felony while out on bail are referred to as: a. Preventive detainees. b. Avertable recidivists. c. Obviate detainees. d. Precluded recidivists.

Q: Who is generally in charge of a platoon? a. captain b. lieutenant c. inspector d. detective

Q: Who is generally in charge of a squad? a. master patrol officer b. corporal c. lieutenant d. sergeant

Q: Of the following property crimes, which is most likely to have the highest average bail set for felony arrests? a. Larceny b. Burglary c. Motor vehicle theft d. Fraud

Q: Which act mandated that no defendants shall be kept in pretrial detention simply because they cannot afford the monetary bail? a. Bail Reform Act of 1984 b. The Federal Lautenberg Act of 1996 c. Pretrial Bond Act of 1988 d. Due Process Release Act of 1971

Q: The first supervisor in the police chain of command is the: a. detective. b. captain. c. lieutenant. d. sergeant.

Q: The first officer at a crime scene is in charge until relieved, at which point the ____________________ takes charge of the scene. a. captain b. lieutenant c. sergeant d. detective/investigator

Q: Individuals who are either denied bond or cannot afford to post bond are referred to as: a. Recognizance offenders. b. Pretrial detainees. c. Captive convict. d. Insolvent prisoner.

Q: Which of the following represents the standard order of civil service ranks within a police department from lowest to highest? a. officer, sergeant, lieutenant, captain, chief b. corporal, officer, sergeant, lieutenant, captain, chief c. captain, officer, sergeant, corporal, lieutenant, chief d. officer, sergeant, corporal, lieutenant, captain, chief

Q: In some jurisdictions, which type of bail is defined by the defendant paying the total amount out of pocket with either cash or property? a. Surety bail b. Security bail c. Full cash bail d. Deposit bail

Q: Which of the following reasons is not an issue normally considered when deciding whether or not to grant bail? a. seriousness of the crime b. potential flight risk of the accused c. age of the accused d. victim impact statements

Q: Police officers are considered ____________________ members of the department. a. sworn b. nonsworn c. civilian d. local

Q: The police structure in the United States is: a. military. b. civilian. c. quasi-military. d. hemi-military.

Q: In which case was the U.S. Supreme Court's interpretation of the Eighth Amendment's provisions on bail set in 1951? a. Stack v. Boyle b. Crosby v. Malkin c. Tennessee v. Martin d. McNamara v. Driscoll

Q: The civil service system is a ____________________ system. a. nepotism b. favoritism c. reward d. merit

Q: In historical English law, sheriffs sometimes abused their power, leading Parliament to issued which statute in 1275, which established bailable offenses. a. Westminster b. West Chester c. Westinghouse d. Worcester

Q: Which is an initial court appearance, at which the accused is read the charges, advised of his or her rights, and asked to enter a plea? a. Indictment b. Arraignment c. Complaint d. Grand jury hearing

Q: Special jurisdictional police operate in many parts of the country. What are these special police departments, and what exactly do they do?

Q: A controversial issue in current law enforcement is the cooperation and escalating involvement of local police with federal immigration officials in enforcing immigration laws. Should local officers assist immigration authorities? Why, or why not?

Q: Which is a sworn written statement addressed to a court or judge by the police, prosecutor, or individual alleging that an individual has committed an offense and requesting prosecution? a. Indictment b. Arraignment c. Complaint d. Warrant

Q: What are some of the ethical issues faced by defense attorneys?

Q: Explain the innovative approach to law enforcement by using joint federal and local task forces.

Q: Define what is meant by an indigent defendant. Also, describe the three means of counsel available to an indigent defendant. What does research state about the effectiveness of appointed counsel verse privately funded counsel?

Q: Explain the consolidation and duties of the Department of Homeland Security.

Q: What has the academic research revealed regarding policing and immigration enforcement?

Q: Define the roles of prosecutors and defense attorneys. What are their main differences and similarities, and how do ethics and morals impact each position

Q: Judicial decision making is said to be influenced by many factors. List the three main categories in which judicial decision making is influenced, and provide at least one example for each.

Q: Discuss the major divisions within the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

Q: Discuss what is meant by an alternative dispute resolution and the two main forms of dispute resolution. Also, list and describe what is meant by a "mini-trial," and provide examples to support your answer.

Q: Explain the gang problems that small-town police departments have to overcome. Detail the strategies used to combat these problems.

Q: Discuss the role of local law enforcement in the enforcement of immigration statutes.

Q: Explain the role and functions of a judge in the U.S. court system.

Q: Describe the U.S. Supreme Court and elaborate the process through which a case is heard in this court.

Q: Identify and explain the two types of state police models.

Q: Elaborate the functions of the three-tiered federal court system.

Q: Compare and contrast rural and metropolitan policing problems.

Q: Discuss the rationale and benefits of specialty courts and how such courts fit into the larger structure of the state court system.

Q: Explain the differences between campus law enforcement at public and private universities.

Q: Identify the problems associated with stress as they relate to small-town policing.

Q: An _________________________ defendant is one who lacks the funds to hire an attorney.

Q: After warning in 2004 that a key federal agency lacked the resources to protect our national parks and monuments, the Fraternal Order of Police argued for management changes and a bigger budget for the _______________.

Q: _________________________ are the most common reasons for a prosecutor to dismiss a case.

Q: A _____________________ is a neutral third party who helps disputing parties reach an agreement, yet has no power to impose a decision on either party.

Q: Law enforcement has seen a trend toward ____________ of police services as a cost-saving measure.

Q: The ___________________ is a method of judicial selection that combines a judicial nominating commission, executive appointment, and nonpartisan confirmation election.

Q: The _____ program deputizes local officers to help enforce federal immigration laws.

Q: The term ___________ means that a higher court agreed with a lower court's decision and that no further action is necessary.

Q: __________ offers consultative services on cold-case serial homicides as well as several other types of cases.

Q: In response to law enforcement's need for more flexible, in-depth data, the UCR formulated the __________, which presents comprehensive, detailed information about crime incidents to law enforcement, researchers, governmental planners, students of criminal justice, and the general public.

Q: A ______________ decision delivered by the Supreme Court is one that sets a new precedent in the law by which all lower courts must abide.

Q: The four major U.S. cabinet departments that administer most federal law enforcement agencies and personnel are__________, __________, __________, and __________.