Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Counseling
Q:
A reform school is an example of a secure juvenile correctional facility.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Probation for juvenile offenders occurs when they are closely monitored by an officer of the court and must adhere to a strict set of rules to avoid incarceration.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Movement toward a community-based treatment approach to juvenile offenders began in Massachusetts.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The arresting officer is involved in all four stages of the court process and writes the predisposition report.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Probation orders are the rules and regulations mandating that a juvenile on probation behave in a particular way.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Probation is a punitive legal disposition for delinquent youths.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Monetary restitution is when the juvenile offender is required to provide some service directly to the crime victim.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Balanced probation is based on the idea that juvenile offenders must take responsibility for their actions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Crime as an offense against human relationships is one of the seven core values of restorative justice.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Highly structured counseling in which a therapist helps a juvenile solve conflicts and make a more positive adjustment to society is called reality therapy.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Requiring youth to reimburse the victims of their crimes, called restitution, is the most widely used form of restitution in the United States.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Evaluations of electronic monitoring show that recidivism rates are much lower in electronic monitoring programs than in traditional programs.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Most juvenile offenders diagnosed with a mental disorder receive treatment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A probation sentence implies a contract between the court and the juvenile.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Passive electronic systems monitor the offender by continuously sending a signal back to the central office.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The temporary care of a child alleged to be delinquent who requires secure custody is called detention.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Juveniles are detained in approximately 22% of delinquency cases.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In some jurisdictions, juvenile court judges handle family-related cases exclusively.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Juveniles do not have a constitutional right to counsel.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Discuss the current trends in regard to the privacy of juvenile records.
Q:
Discuss blended sentences.
Q:
A number of common dispositions for juveniles were indicated in the text. List and discuss five of the common juvenile dispositions you believe to be most effective.
Q:
Discuss the importance of the Gault case.
Q:
Discuss diversion in regard to juveniles.
Q:
Discuss the pros and cons of transferring youths to an adult court.
Q:
Discuss the decision to detain.
Q:
Discuss why detention is increasing. Do you agree with the speculation regarding "correction of biases"? Explain why or why not?
Q:
List the duties of the juvenile court judge. Explain why it is difficult to attract well-trained individuals for juvenile courts in limited or specialized jurisdictions?
Q:
Discuss the roles of the juvenile defense attorney.
Q:
The _____ report helps the judge decide which disposition is best for the child and aids the probation officer in developing treatment programs.
Q:
It was this case, _____, which established proof beyond a reasonable doubt as necessary for conviction of a juvenile defendant.
Q:
It was this case, _____, which instilled in juvenile proceedings the development of due process standards at the pretrial, the trial, and the posttrial stages of the juvenile process.
Q:
The standard of proof used in juvenile court, which is the same as in adult courts, is ______.
Q:
A court order authorizing disposition of a case without a formal label of delinquency is called a ____.
Q:
Most juvenile justice experts oppose the ____, or the transfer of juveniles to adult courts, because it clashes with the rehabilitation ideal not as commonly found in adult courts.
Q:
A preadjudicatory hearing for the purpose of deciding whether a juvenile defendant should be retained over for juvenile court or waived to adult court is called a ______.
Q:
An attorney responsible for brining the state's case forward against the accused juvenile is called the _____.
Q:
A court-appointed attorney who protects the interests of the child in cases involving the child's welfare is called a _____.
Q:
The attorney who represents children in juvenile court and plays an active role at all stages of the proceedings is called a _____.
Q:
In _____, the Court held that any injury resulting from the disclosure of a juvenile's record is outweighed by the right to completely cross-examine an adverse witness.
Q:
The U.S. Supreme Court put an end to the practice of life sentences without the possibility of parole for juveniles convicted of nonhomicide crimes in which case?
Q:
A _____ is a judicial order requesting that a person detaining another produce the body of the prisoner and give reasons for his or her capture and detention.
Q:
_____ enables youths to live in a more homelike setting while the courts dispose of their cases.
Q:
A _____ ends litigation between two parties by determining all their rights and disposing of all the issues.
Q:
A _____ sentence is defined by a statutory requirement that states the penalty to be set for all cases of a specific offense.
Q:
One of the criticisms of the diversion programs is that juveniles who previously would have been released without official notice are now involved in the juvenile justice system. This is referred to as ______.
Q:
Most states refuse juveniles the right to _____ , arguing that juvenile proceedings are civil, not criminal.
Q:
Keeping the accused in custody prior to trial because the accused is suspected of being a danger to the community is referred to as ______.
Q:
Most juvenile experts oppose _____ because the outcome in adult courts tends to clash with the rehabilitative ideal.
Q:
Which case struck down the punishment of life without parole for juveniles?
a. Graham v. Florida
b. Roper v. Simmons
c. Miller v. Alabama
d. Thompson v. Oklahoma
Q:
This case, Oklahoma Publishing Co. v. District Court, along with which other case attempted to balance the right to privacy with the freedom of the press in juvenile court proceedings?
a. Alaska v. Davis
b. Roper v. Simmons
c. Miller v. Alabama
d. Smith v. Daily Mail Publishing Co.
Q:
This case concluded that any injury resulting from the disclosure of a juvenile's record is outweighed by the right to completely cross-examine an adverse witness.
a. Alaska v. Davis
b. Roper v. Simmons
c. Oklahoma Publishing Co. v. District Court
d. Smith v. Daily Mail Publishing Co.
Q:
Judges follow the probation department recommendations _____ of the time.
a. 25%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 90%
Q:
In _____, the U.S. Supreme Court held that the death penalty for juveniles was unconstitutional.
a. Graham v. Florida
b. In re Gault
c. Atkins v. Virginia
d. Roper v. Simmons
Q:
The type of sentence that specifies a fixed term of detention that must be served is referred to as a/an _____ sentence.
a. indeterminate
b. mandatory
c. determinate
d. individualized
Q:
Due process is addressed in the Fifth and _____ Amendments to the U.S. Constitution.
a. Fourteenth
b. Second
c. Eighth
d. Fourth
Q:
_____ mandated that juveniles have a right to notice of the allegations made against them.
a. In re Gault
b. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
c. Graham v. Florida
d. Kent v. U.S.
Q:
_____ afforded juveniles the right to counsel.
a. In re Gault
b. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
c. In re Winship
d. Kent v. U.S.
Q:
What is the basic philosophy at the disposition hearing?
a. Dispositions should be made in the best interest of the child.
b. Dispositions should use retribution as the determination of the sentence.
c. Under the doctrine of parens patriae, the parent should choose the ultimate disposition.
d. Dispositions should only look at the evidence presented at the adjudication hearing.
Q:
In _____, the Court held that juveniles do not have a constitutional right to a jury.
a. In re Gault
b. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
c. In re Winship
d. Kent v. U.S.
Q:
That the amount of proof required in a juvenile delinquency adjudication must be beyond a reasonable doubt was the holding of the Court in _____.
a. In re Gault
b. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
c. In re Winship
d. Kent v. U.S.
Q:
_____ refers to the hearing held in juvenile court to determine the "sentence" of the juvenile.
a. Adjudication
b. Disposition
c. Transfer
d. Review
Q:
The hearing held in juvenile court to determine the merits of the petition claiming that a child is either a delinquent youth or in need of court supervision is referred to as _____.
a. adjudication
b. disposition
c. transfer
d. review
Q:
According to the most recent study of waivers, _____ of juveniles tried in adult criminal court are actually sent to prison.
a. 13%
b. 27%
c. 40%
d. 52%
Q:
In _____, the U.S. Supreme Court ruling prevented a juvenile from being tried in two courts (adult and juvenile), holding that to do so is a violation of the double jeopardy clause.
a. In re Gault
b. Breed v. Jones
c. Schall v. Martin
d. Miranda v. Arizona
Q:
Which of the following is not a part of the waiver procedure?
a. Concurrent jurisdiction
b. Statutory exclusion policies
c. Informal gateway protocols
d. Judicial waiver
Q:
On average, _____ of juvenile cases are waived to adult court by the juvenile court each year.
a. less than 0.5%
b. approximately 2%
c. approximately 9%
d. approximately 15%
Q:
The _____ gives the juvenile the opportunity to have the case brought before a reviewing court after it has been heard in juvenile or family court.
a. final order
b. adjudication review committee
c. writ of habeas corpus
d. appellate process
Q:
The formal complaint that initiates judicial actions against a juvenile charged with delinquency or a status offense is called the _____.
a. complaint
b. indictment
c. petition
d. trial information
Q:
The waiver process in juvenile justice proceedings is used_____.
a. to transfer juvenile cases to adult courts
b. by juvenile judges to release juvenile defendants
c. to allow defendants to waive their due process rights
d. by juvenile detention facilities to release juvenile offenders
Q:
The U.S. Supreme Court case, _____, upheld the concept of preventive detention for juveniles.
a. In re Gault
b. In re Kemmler
c. Schall v. Martin
d. Miranda v. Arizona
Q:
What is the purpose of the 1989 amendment to the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974?
a. It prohibits states from placing juveniles into adult facilities.
b. It mandates that juveniles must have a hearing within 24 hours of placement at a secure detention facility.
c. It mandates that any juvenile placed at a secure detention facility must have an attorney appointed to represent him or her.
d. It provides for the mandatory education and health care of the youth while in the detention facility.
Q:
Project Confirm in New York City is one example of an effort to reduce the detention of _____ who have been arrested.
a. intellectually disabled offenders
b. foster care youth
c. status offenders
d. female offenders
Q:
The attorney responsible for bringing the state's case forward against the accused juvenile is called the_____.
a. sheriff
b. court counselor
c. social worker
d. juvenile prosecutor
Q:
Most children taken into custody are_____.
a. sent into protective custody
b. sent into preventative custody
c. released to their parents
d. detained for several days
Q:
The juvenile court did not include a prosecutor in its first 60 years of existence because _____.
a. it was inconsistent with the philosophy of treatment
b. there was no constitutional right to legal counsel, so a prosecutor was unnecessary
c. the judge acted as the prosecutor
d. the child was always presumed guilty
Q:
The typical delinquent detainee is male, 16 years old, and charged with a _____.
a. curfew violation
b. violent crime
c. liquor law violation
d. tobacco law violation
Q:
A _____ refers to a court-appointed individual who protects the interests of the child in cases involving the child's welfare.
a. court-appointed defense attorney
b. social worker
c. social attorney
d. guardian ad litem
Q:
According to the latest data available (2009), about _____ juvenile delinquency cases are referred to juvenile court.
a. 875,000
b. 11 million
c. 4.2 million
d. 1.5 million
Q:
In re Gault established that proof beyond a reasonable doubt be the standard by which juveniles are found guilty.
a. True
b. False