Q&A Hero

Q: Currently, the participants in therapeutic communities a. are all self-referred to the center.b. are in 1/3 of the cases under supervision by the court.c. are under the supervision of the court in 2/3 of the cases.d. have completed all obligations to the court so they might freely participate in rehabilitation.

Q: The main vehicle of personality change in the TC environment is thought to be the a. revamping of the family environment.b. expression of hidden feelings.c. affirmations received for work well done. d. supportive confrontation.

Q: The confrontations during interventions need to include specific examples of how the participants have been impacted by the addicted person's behaviors.a. Trueb. False

Q: Health care professionals have a single, clear definition of what an intervention is with substance abusing clients. a. Trueb. False

Q: Discuss some of the reasons employers may feel it necessary to compel employees to seek rehabilitation for SUDs.

Q: The "drug courts" are most effective for a. finally dealing with the worst offenders. b. mid-level drug dealers. c. firsttime, nonviolent offenders. d. dealing with international drug trafficking cases.

Q: Describe some of the ways individuals end up participating in courtmandated treatments.

Q: Compare the Johnson and ARISE models of intervention.

Q: The goal of the formal intervention project is having the client a. gain a working understanding with their family. b. enter treatment immediately. c. acknowledge their problem. d. promise to end their use of the substance in question.

Q: Discuss some of the ethical concerns that should be considered when contemplating an intervention.

Q: Research has found that a brief physician-based intervention a. is not more effective than handing the patient a leaflet on the dangers of drinking. b. has become the standard of intervention models. c. is only effective when the physician works with the wider family to coordinate a dual intervention. d. is not effective unless the physician has admitting privileges to a hospital with rehabilitation facilities.

Q: Provide a working definition of the term intervention based on your text.

Q: Surprisingly, in light of the enthusiasm with which the concept of intervention has been embraced a. there is little evidence of its effectiveness.b. it is all too often over-utilized, reducing its effectiveness.c. most professionals are well trained in such procedures, but have little time to help organize and coordinate the intervention process.d. it appears to work only with older persons.

Q: Involuntary commitment to treatment a. is legal in more than 30 states.b. is a violation of the client's second amendment rights under the constitution.c. is illegal in all states.d. is about as effective as other forms of court-mandated treatment.

Q: Court-mandated treatment might be viewed as a form of a. external motivation for the client.b. dumping an expensive program on taxpayers by calling it something good. c. minimally invasive intervention.d. over-taxing the judicial system with cases involving minor offenses.

Q: The "drug court" client who is most likely to benefit from this program isa. a non-violent recidivist with a substance-related conviction.b. a first time offender who does not have a history of violence.c. repeat offenders whose crimes also involve those not substance related. d. those offenders who are under the age of 25.

Q: By lawa. in some states insurance companies are not required to pay for court-mandated treatment.b. most insurance companies have provisions for sharing the cost of treatment with the courts.c. the client is automatically not responsible for the cost of rehabilitation if he or she should successfully complete the program.d. the cost of courtmandated treatment is paid for through fines imposed on the client "invited" to be in treatment.

Q: The client who is offered the opportunity to complete treatment in lieu of jail by the court a. is assumed to have no legal right to say "no" to this recommendation.b. rarely views this as an opportunity for growth.c. is assumed to be motivated to stop abusing chemicals.d. is assumed to be less likely to benefit from treatment than those who arrive through other venues.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of a formal family intervention project?a. The client's verbal consent is necessary in advance. b. The client's written consent is necessary in advance. c. That there be no retribution by any of the participants. d. That it be rehearsed in advance.

Q: The family intervention project as designed and summarized by Johnson a. is more common than intervention through the legal system.b. is less popular than the ARISE model.c. is the only effective way to carry out an intervention project. d. holds the potential for damage to the family.

Q: You are a substance abuse rehabilitation counselor working for a treatment center. You are asked to coordinate an intervention project, which you agree to do. When the individual agrees to enter rehabilitation, you inform him that a bed has been held for him at the treatment center where you work. This is possiblya. evidence of internal job security. b. fraudulent activity.c. an act that intrudes on the individual's freedom of choice.d. a conflict of interest.

Q: The assessment that an individual needs an intervention project a. is often speculative.b. requires that the individual meet a set of rigidly defined criteria.c. requires that the individual have threatened to harm self or others.d. also requires the individual's guardian to agree before it can be carried out.

Q: Even if the individual does enter into a rehabilitation program, ________is a problem. a. transportationb. appropriate medical care c. non-complianced. intrusiveness into family matters

Q: It used to be thought that the addicted person had to ____before he or she would see the need to change his or her substance use behavior.a. be allowed to fail to control substance use b. hit bottomc. discover the varieties of substance use disorders d. lose a spouse or job

Q: Following treatment, the average medical cost for a substance abuser/addict has been found to fall from $750 a month toa. $300. b. $500. c. $150. d. $200.

Q: The standard definition of "intervention" isa. a hardhitting, choreographed, confrontation of the client's denial about his or her substance use in an attempt to get him or her to cut back on the amount consumed.b. the threat of divorce by a spouse who has reached his or her limit after the partner's repeated periods of substance use.c. multiple arrests for substance-related crimes. d. still waiting to be developed.

Q: Employees with an AUD are _______times more likely to file a "workman's compensation" claim than nondrinkers.a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Q: Drug court programs need toa. assess for the individual's need for treatment.b. monitor the individual's compliance to treatment.c. reduce legal charges if the individual successfully completes the program. d. all of these answers.

Q: The original form of intervention is called the ________model. a. Petersonb. ARISEc. Contingency Management d. Johnson

Q: Participants need to have clear, specific ____ready should the addicted person refuse to enter treatment after the intervention.a. confrontations b. apologiesc. sanctions d. threats

Q: Vernon Johnson believed an addicted persona. needed to hit bottom before an intervention could be effective. b. did not need to hit bottom before agreeing to go to treatment.c. would never be able to understand the reality of his/her addiction. d. must be made to promise to never use again.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the definition of intervention in your text? a. Interventions are often supervised by a trained professional. b. Interventions are organized by people in the addicted individual's life. c. Interventions are meant to break down the walls of denial in the addicted person. d. The goal of an intervention is to talk to the addicted person about whether they think they will consider going into treatment at some point in the future.

Q: An important rule for assessing and diagnosing an individual is to always assume deception unless proven otherwise. a. Trueb. False

Q: Although there is no standardized format, discuss some of the common elements found in better assessment processes.

Q: Select two standardized tests discussed in your text and describe their characteristics.

Q: What are the types of "response sets" that might distort the assessor's opinions of the client's SUD? What are ways to mitigate these?

Q: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of paperandpencil screening instruments.

Q: Describe the various roles the process of assessment plays regarding SUDs.

Q: One other factor the assessor should attempt to identify is a. client's motivation for seeking treatment services.b. whether financial windfall was a motivating factor.c. second degree relatives who might also have a SUD. d. who supplies alcohol or drugs to the client.

Q: When inquiring about the client's medical history, it is important to inquire abouta. the name of the physician prescribing a medication for the client.b. the name of the pharmacy where the client's prescriptions are filled. c. the number of physicians prescribing a medication for the client.d. the effects of the prescribed chemicals on the client.

Q: One way for many substance abusers to avoid having their substance use interfere with their vocational activities is to bea. only an on-call worker.b. an employee of a small company. c. self-employed.d. not part of the work force.

Q: A client presents after conviction for his second "drunk driving" conviction. During the assessment process he also reveals he had a disciplinary action while in the military for driving a vehicle on base while intoxicated. This would a. be counted as a third "drunk driving" conviction, although it did not appear on his civilian driving record.b. not be counted as a "drunk driving" conviction since he was on base and it did not appear on his civilian record.c. be dismissed as evidence of a substance use disorder since everybody knows that people in the military drink more than civilians of the same age.d. be included as evidence of a "drunk driving" only if it involved the same chemical that was involved in their civilian convictions.

Q: The MacAndrew Alcohol Scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory could best be described as a. being a useful, if rather lengthy, screening tool.b. best able to identify personality patterns commonly associated with substance use disorders.c. being 95 percent accurate in its ability to identify persons with a SUD if they answer the questions honestly. d. identifying introverted persons as having a greater chance of having a SUD.

Q: A urine toxicology test reveals that a client has THC in his or her urine. This is proof that the client a. used marijuana on one occasion in the days before the urine test.b. is addicted to marijuana.c. is a heavy substance abuser who is in denial.d. has engaged in active deception to avoid family members knowing about their marijuana abuse.

Q: A client reports spending "only $100" a week on alcohol, but becomes indignant when you report that this is over $5,000 a year for alcohol. This is an example of a. disengagement.b. denial.c. attempt to rationalize. d. mindfulness.

Q: In contrast to the screening phase, during the assessment phase the individual conducting the assessment is attempting to a. assign responsibility for the individual's substance use disorder on to those who hurt the client emotionally. b. identify the severity of the client's SUD. c. identify socioeconomic forces that contributed to the development of the client's SUD. d. develop a time sequence for the victimization of the substance abusing individual.

Q: A score of 5 points on the DAST woulda. be below the cut-off score necessary to suggest a substance use disorder on this instrument. b. be sufficiently high to suggest a substance use disorder on this instrument.c. suggest substance abuse, but not substance dependence.d. reflect extreme denial on this instrument since a score of "5" has been engineered to be a lie detection score suggestive of attempts at deception.

Q: One of the problems of the SASSI-3 is that ita. provides a detailed list of substances the individual has abused in the past. b. does not identify binge drinking in young adult males.c. does not identify which substances are possibly being abused.d. focuses more on drugs of abuse rather than alcohol use disorders.

Q: One drawback of the AUDIT is that ita. was normed on a representative sample of individuals only in the United States. b. is relatively insensitive to active drinkers over the age of 65.c. tends to have a high number of "false positive" cases in persons over the age of 65.d. was designed mainly to be used to screen individuals over the age of 65.

Q: The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) is ____effective in identifying people with an alcohol use disorder.a. 70 percent b. 100 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent

Q: You are an addictions counselor in private practice. You have referred a client to an intensive treatment program based on his history of binge drinking, as a person with an alcohol dependence problem. The client's pastor calls to challenge your recommendation on the grounds that the individual in question had a low score on the Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test (MAST). Your best response would bea. the pastor has no right to become involved in a substance use assessment. b. the MAST is relatively insensitive to binge drinking patterns.c. the client probably has been honest with the pastor about his or her drinking pattern, so the pastor's concerns are well placed.d. the pastor should complete a separate, comprehensive, substance use assessment.

Q: According to your text, the two-question screening instrument designed by Brown, et. al., is a. at best able to identify only 75 percent of substance abusers.b. able to identify substance abusers with 95 percent accuracy if the client answers honestly. c. avoids the problem of confusion over binge substance use and addiction.d. identifies those people who have a compulsion to use chemicals.

Q: One major disadvantage of paper-and-pencil screening instruments is that they are a. expensive and labor intensive.b. inexpensive but labor intensive.c. vulnerable to attempts at deception.d. more threatening to the client than face-to-face interviews.

Q: The CAGE tends to be best for identifying the following subgroup of people a. women who are binge drinkers.b. illicit drug abusers.c. men who are not binge drinkers.d. adolescents who also abuse illicit drugs.

Q: The term addictiona. is clearly defined in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. b. is still not clearly defined.c. is applied only to substance use disorders.d. automatically indicates the need for rehabilitation.

Q: A business owner calls you about an employee who failed a worksite urine drug toxicology test. The person is addicted to drugs and the employer wants them to be sent to a rehabilitation center. Your response would be a. to help them find a rehabilitation center close to where the employee lives.b. to assume the employee is addicted.c. to suggest the need for a complete substance use assessment.d. refer the individual to an outpatient drug and alcohol counselor you know.

Q: The assessor, while functioning as a "gatekeeper" for the admissions processa. must identify which insurance company benefit package will pay for treatment. b. gathers the information to justify treatment.c. essentially operates on the assumption that everybody has a SUD until proven otherwise.d. works as an extension of the law enforcement agencies, helping to identify those likely to drive under the influence of chemicals in the future.

Q: A person who has been found to have a "dirty" urine toxicology test for the first time ____has a substance addiction.a. possibly b. definitelyc. cannot possibly (since it is only their first time)d. and has a high blood alcohol level

Q: What additional information should Jerry, from the question above, gather about his client, Ned?a. Where Ned gets his cocaineb. The current level of cocaine in Ned's system c. Ned's motivation for seeking an assessment d. All of these answers

Q: Jerry is a substance abuse counselor working with a client, Ned. Through completing a thorough assessment, Jerry has discovered that Ned has developed tolerance to cocaine, is preoccupied with using cocaine, has come to work high on cocaine, and continues to use cocaine despite his desire to quit, often to ward off symptoms of withdrawal. Based on this information, Jerrya. has sufficient information to diagnosis Ned with a SUD. b. should perform a drug test on Ned.c. should perform the DAST screening on Ned.d. should immediately get Ned into inpatient drug treatment.

Q: Which of the following is important historical information to compile during a client assessment?a. Educational and vocational history b. Legal historyc. Military historyd. All of these answers

Q: Which of the following is an example of collateral information that may be important to collect during a client assessment?a. Information from family members b. Past treatment recordsc. Court documentsd. All of these answers

Q: The core of the assessment process isa. having the client complete the SASSI. b. asking the CAGE questions.c. a clinical interview.d. performing the TWEAK.

Q: It is important to diagnosis an individual based on the results of their SUDs screening. a. Trueb. False

Q: According to your text, which of the following is NOT one of the roles the assessment process plays?a. Forms the foundation of the rehabilitation process b. Helps put the drug abuser in jailc. Helps identify those individuals who require professional assistance with their SUDs d. Helps identify the proper level of treatment for an individual with a SUD

Q: In the quest for a pharmacological treatment to emotional pain, the spiritual aspect of the individual's existence has been embraced. a. Trueb. False

Q: Explain the idea behind "false pride" and how it manifests and is involved in the process of recovery.

Q: Discuss how someone with a SUD might lose sight of the damage being done, in effect becoming blind to the severity of their condition.

Q: Discuss some of the "games" of addiction that may be used to build a support system enabling the user access to their problem chemicals.

Q: Discuss the idea of the "ghost in the machine" being the result of the development of selfawareness within humans.

Q: Describe the process through which the humanistic perspective supplanted spirituality in Western culture.

Q: During "euphoric recall," the person will a. sound as if he or she is speaking of a valued friend. b. sound as if he or she is speaking of a despised or hated family member. c. outline at great length the cost that each substance has extracted from him or her, and the substance-induced rewards for using them. d. discuss how negative feelings about substance use encouraged him or her to remain abstinent.

Q: It has been suggested that the individual with an SUD isa. engaged in a spiritual quest, but one that is flawed because of the nature of the addiction. b. able to strongly identify with the goals and dreams of normal people.c. quite aware of his or her deceptive behaviors and accepts responsibility for these behaviors willingly. d. attempting to avoid spiritual matters entirely because he or she has heard too much about such issues.

Q: With the growth of addictiona. the chemicals become an extension of the existential angst the person struggles with.b. the individual makes the chemicals the axis around which he ors he centers his or her life. c. financial resources are left unaltered so life goals can still be achieved.d. relationships are left unaltered.

Q: The opposite of false pride is _______, per your text.a. the intense striving to share with others as you desire b. denial of pain in the service of self lovec. humilityd. pride in your accomplishments, even if they stand on the wreckage of the lives of others

Q: In your text, _________is viewed as a disorder of the spirit. a. spiritual strivingb. false pridec. giving of the "self" to another, knowing that we are only able to do so imperfectly but with determinationd. introversion

Q: According to Martin Buber, wea. define our "self" by the relationships that we choose to enter into.b. are entitled to escape from unpleasant stimuli by any means possible.c. should wait until the path of ultimate truth is made clear and then follow it.d. can always avoid or escape the need to define the "self" as young adults, but find this more difficult in middle adulthood and beyond.

Q: Although individual self-awareness offers the chance for self-determination, it also bringsa. knowledge that life is only fulfilled by what we desire, and that pleasure is the ultimate goal in life. b. responsibility for choices that we make.c. knowledge that life is an unending series of struggles that prepare us for the next level as we climb the wheel of life.d. knowledge that there are 10 levels of awareness as outlined in the Kaballah.

Q: Eric Fromm suggested that the pain we feel when we become aware of our essential isolation from others is mitigated bya. the love we offer to others in spite of our isolation, which, while making us vulnerable, also offers the possibility of reunion.b. the developmental age cohort we belong to, since different age groups handle this pain in different ways. c. our awareness that life is an illusion, without purpose or meaning, ending in certain death.d. none of these answers.

Q: It is thought that if a person fails to center his or her life around the sacred and be guided by the sacred to become a more unified whole, then a. alcohol and/or drugs come to fill the void. b. the person will desire substancerelated existenceless ("mini deaths"). c. the person will turn to others to fill that void. d. the person will drift aimlessly, following anything that offers the illusion of purpose.