Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following does NOT describe reliability?a. The degree to which test scores are free from errors of measurement b. The degree to which test scores are consistent and accuratec. The degree to which a test measures what it's supposed to measure d. All of these describe reliability.

Q: When a test has been shown to produce consistent test results, it has which of the following?a. Reliability b. Validityc. Practicalityd. Cross-cultural fairness e. None of these

Q: A newly developed instrument for screening depression suggests that an individual is not depressed; however, later information reveals that in fact he is depressed. This problem can be attributed to:a. parallel forms.b. internal consistency. c. a false positive.d. a false negative. e. sampling error.

Q: A test developer creates a new instrument to measure depression. He correlates this instrument with an existing test that measures anxiety. The test developer hopes to not find a high correlation, thus assuring the integrity of the construct he is measuring. This type of validity is called:a. experimental design validity. b. factor analysis validity.c. convergent validity.d. criterion-related validity. e. discriminant validity.

Q: A test developer creates a new instrument to measure psychotic tendencies. She correlates this instrument with an existing test that measures psychotic tendencies that has been shown to be valid. This type of validity is called:a. experimental design validity.b. factor analysis validity.c. convergent validity.d. criterion-related validity. e. discriminant validity.

Q: In developing a multiple aptitude test, the test developers wanted to assure that the various subtests do not correlate strongly with one another, thus assuring the integrity of each subtest. They conduct a number of intercorrelations among subtests. This type of validity is called:a. experimental design validity. b. factor analysis validity.c. convergent validity.d. criterion-related validity. e. predictive validity.

Q: In assessing the validity of a test, you randomly assign 100 individuals to two groups: one group assesses intelligence through a newly developed test, and a second group assesses intelligence through a traditional intelligence test that has been shown to be valid. You then conduct a statistical analysis to see if there are significant differences between the groups. Your hypothesis states that there will be no significant differences. This type of validity is called:a. experimental design validity. b. factor analysis validity.c. convergent validity.d. criterion-related validity. e. discriminant validity.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a kind of construct validity?a. Experimental design validity b. Factor analysis validityc. Convergent validityd. Criterion-related validity e. Discriminant validity

Q: A test developer asks five clinicians who are experts in depression to rank 100 depressed clients on a 1 to 5 scale from minor depression to severe depression. The rankings are then correlated with test scores on a new test of depression. What kind of validity is being measured?a. Experimental b. Concurrentc. Predictive d. Constructe. Convergent

Q: If you are interested in examining whether or not the GREs can accurately tell how students perform in graduate school, you would most likely want to investigate the validity of the test.a. contentb. concurrent c. predictive d. constructe. convergent

Q: Concurrent and predictive validity are types of:a. content validity.b. criterion-related validity. c. construct validity.d. test-retest reliability.e. internal consistency reliability.

Q: Which of the following is a type of criterion-related validity?a. Content validityb. Predictive validityc. Convergent validity d. Discriminant validitye. None of these are criterion-related.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a step in determining the content validity of an instrument?a. The test developer adequately surveyed the content domain.b. The content of the test was shown to match what was found in the survey of the domain. c. The test items accurately reflect the content.d. The test is shown to be highly correlated with another, similar test.e. The number of items for each content area matches their relative importance.

Q: Which of the following does NOT describe validity?a. It is the degree to which all of the accumulated evidence supports the intended interpretation of test scores for the intended purpose.b. It is a unitary concept.c. It examines how well a test measures what it is supposed to measure. d. It tells you whether or not test scores are consistent.

Q: Which of the following scatterplots would best define the relationship between intelligence (IQ) and height?a. b. c.

Q: Which of the following scatterplots would best identify the most reliable test-retest correlation?a. b. c.

Q: Which of the following is an example of negative correlation?a. Caloric intake and a person's weight b. Exercise and a person's weightc. Height and a person's weight d. All of these are examples.e. None of these are examples.

Q: A correlation coefficient of .60 was found when correlating the scores of 1,000 randomly chosen individuals who took a test that measures verbal reasoning with a test that measures problem solving abilities. Which statement is true about this correlation coefficient?a. The coefficient of determination is .60. b. The shared variance is .49.c. The shared variance is .36. d. The shared variance is 1.2. e. None of these are true.

Q: Which of the following has a correlation of approximately .70?a. b. c. d.

Q: Which of the following has the strongest correlation?a. −.87 b. +.86 c. + 0 d. + .3

Q: Which of the following is NOT related to test worthiness?a. Reliabilityb. Statistical formationc. Cross-cultural fairness d. Validitye. Practicality

Q: Which of the following categories are NOT generally found in a report?a. Significant medical/counseling history b. Substance use and abusec. Vocational and educational historyd. "Other" pertinent background information e. All of these are often found in a report.

Q: Which of the following is important when gathering family background information?a. To gather as much detail as possible and report all that is obtained.b. That information is focused on the aspects of the family that may have affected the presenting problem. c. The hypotheses or your opinion concerning the client's family are offered in this section of the report.d. All of these are important.

Q: Which of the following is generally NOT included in the demographic information section of the report?a. Name of clientb. Birth date of clientc. Address, phone number, and e-mail address of client d. Place of birthe. Ethnic background of client

Q: Which of the following is suggested when writing reports?a. Describe your feelings (not behaviors) about the client and his or her issues. b. State your opinion throughout the report.c. Use labels regarding your client as a valuable tool for your reader. d. Take a stand if you feel strongly that the information warrants it.e. Points out only the weaknesses of your client; his or her strengths are unimportant for the report.

Q: Which of the following is suggested when writing reports?a. Use shorter rather than longer words.b. Maximize the number of difficult words.c. Use the jargon of your professional associations. d. Use acronyms to save space.e. Use passive verbs.

Q: All of the following affirm clients' right to access their test data and reports EXCEPT:a. Jaffeev.Redmond.b. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA). c. Freedom of Information Act.d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).

Q: Which is true about computer-driven assessment reports?a. They assure coverage of a wide range of topics. b. They are not as reliable as clinician interviews.c. The case reports generated by them are generally of poor quality. d. All of these are true.e. None of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the unstructured interview? a. It assures all topics are adequately discussed. b. It creates an atmosphere that is conducive to rapport building. c. It allows the client to feel as if he or she is directing the interview thus allowing the client to discuss items that he or she deems important. d. It offers the potential for greater depth of information and the uncovering of underlying issues that the client might otherwise avoid revealing.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the structured interview?a. It can cause the examiner to miss important pieces of information because items are pre-determined. b. It creates an atmosphere that might be experienced as dehumanizing by the client.c. It can result in misinterpretation of items by clients, or of client responses by examiners, when working with minority clients or others who may be less familiar with items.d. It may focus too much on one area at the exclusion of others.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the structured interview?a. It offers broad enough areas of content to cover topics a practitioner may otherwise have missed. b. It increases the reliability of results due to the fact that all prescribed items will be covered.c. It allows the client the freedom of response to discuss other items, if need be.d. It helps the examiner to focus on specific items that may otherwise be missed or difficult to cover during an unstructured interview.

Q: Which of the following is NOT suggested in the text as guidelines to be cognizant of in order to adequately interview a client?a. Establish trust and rapport.b. Provide an environment that is comfortable and assures confidentiality.c. Focus on verbal and nonverbal cues in an effort to gather all of what the person is communicating to you. d. Be confrontational if necessary regarding substance use and abuse.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the clinical interview?a. It helps to set a tone for the types of information that will be covered.b. It allows the clinician to examine areas of the client's life that are not critical to the overall assessment process.c. It helps the client to become desensitized to intimate and personal information. d. It allows the examiner to assess non-verbals.e. It gives the client and examiner the opportunity to assure that they can work together.

Q: In assuring that the information gathering process for the report is adequate, clinicians need to take into account which of the following?a. The breadth and depth of the assessment b. The type of interview being conductedc. The kinds of assessment instruments that will be usedd. Determining if other collateral information will need to be gathered e. All of these must be taken into account.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a way an assessment report should be used?a. As a mechanism to assist in providing insight to clients for therapy b. As a means of suggesting treatment options in counselingc. To suggest educational services for students with special needsd. To protect clinicians from liability concerns by keeping a second set of reports which is hidden from clients e. To provide feedback for the courts in making difficult decisions

Q: Before people attempt to take their own lives or that of someone else, their thoughts and actions often lie along a continuum. Rank order the following items along this continuum. a. Gather or purchase items (means) to carry out the plan. b. Develop a plan. c. Rehearse the plan. d. Have thoughts about killing self or other. e. Make any final preparation needed to carry out the plan.

Q: People will often practice or do a "dry run" before they act on killing themselves. a. Trueb. False

Q: When it is assessing for lethality, which of the following is NOT important to consider? a. The continuum of their ideation to rehearsal b. Protective factors c. Risk factors d. Ability to contract for safety e. None of these; they are all important.

Q: Generally, the skilled examiner will write a report that is two to five pages in length, single-spaced. a. Trueb. False

Q: The recommendations section of the report should flow naturally from the rest of the report. a. Trueb. False

Q: Often, the recommendations section of the report will have new facts or information because something may have been missed earlier. a. True b. False

Q: The summary and conclusion section of the report gives you the opportunity to add new information or facts that may have been excluded elsewhere. a. True b. False

Q: Generally, the diagnosis section of the assessment report includes clinical diagnosis, psychosocial and environmental factors, and medical conditions. a. True b. False

Q: Generally, when incorporating a mental status into a report, all four areas are given their own separate paragraph. a. Trueb. False

Q: The client's mood refers to his or her prevailing feeling state, while the client's affect refers to his or her long-term, underlying emotional well-being. a. True b. False

Q: The presenting problem, or reason for referral, part of the report gives an explanation of why the client has come to seek services. a. True b. False

Q: Today, there are one or two established formats for writing test reports. a. Trueb. False

Q: It is good practice to assess for lethality during most psychological related assessments. a. Trueb. False

Q: An advantage of the semi-structured interview is that it draws from both the structured and unstructured interview styles, thus allowing the interviewer the freedom to flow back and forth between the two styles. a. True b. False

Q: Due to the nature of the unstructured interview, the interviewer might miss information because he or she is "caught up" in the client's story and not following a prescribed set of questions. a. True b. False

Q: The depth of the assessment has to do with casting a wide enough net to assure that the examiner has done all that is necessary to adequately assess what he or she is looking for. a. True b. False

Q: The breadth of the assessment has to do with assuring that one is using techniques that reflect the intensity of the issue(s) being examined. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the summary and conclusion section of the report?a. It pulls together all of the information that has been gathered. b. It is often the only section of the report that is read by others.c. It should have no new information except for inferences that are logical, sound, defendable, and based on facts that are mentioned in your report.d. It should be succinct and relevant. e. All of these are true.

Q: In the diagnosis section of the assessment report, it is generally a good idea to include:a. DSM mental health diagnosis.b. psychosocial and environmental factors (V and Z codes). c. ICD medical diagnosis.d. all of these.

Q: In the results section of the assessment report, one should:a. give out raw scores only.b. offer interpretations of the data.c. offer converted or standardized test scores that the reader will understand. d. do none of these.

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the client's cognitive functioning?a. Client orientation to time, place, and person b. Short- and long-term memory of clientc. Obsessional thinking of clientd. Knowledge base and intellectual functioning of client e. Client insight and judgment

Q: Whether a client is oriented to time, place, and person; an assessment of the client's short- and long-term memory; an evaluation of the client's knowledge base and intellectual functioning; and a statement about the client's level of insight and ability to make judgments all refer to the client's:a. affect. b. mood.c. thought components. d. cognitive functioning. e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered part of the client's thought processes (as opposed to content of thought)?a. Circumstantialityb. Coherence of thoughts c. Flight of ideasd. Logical thinkinge. Suicidal or homicidal ideation

Q: In the mental status exam, concepts such as circumstantial, flight of ideas, logical and organized, loose associations, tangential, and poverty refer to the client's:a. content of thought. b. thought processes.c. cognitive functioning. d. affect and mood.e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the client's content of thought (as opposed to thought processes)?a. Delusionsb. Distortions of body image c. Hallucinationsd. Obsessionse. Circumstantiality

Q: Delusions, distortions of body image, hallucinations, obsessions, or suicidal or homicidal ideation all refer to the client's:a. affect. b. mood.c. thought components. d. cognitive functioning. e. All of these are true.

Q: The manner in which a client thinks reveals much about how he or she comes to understand and make meaning of the world. In the mental status exam, this refers to the client's:a. affect. b. mood.c. thought components. d. cognitive functioning. e. All of these are true.

Q: Terms like constricted, full, appropriate, inappropriate, content, labile, flat, blunted, or exaggerated refer to the client's:a. affect. b. mood.c. thought components. d. cognitive functioning. e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is NOT found in a mental status report?a. The client's appearance and behaviorb. The client's stability at work/school/home life c. The client's emotional stated. The client's thought components e. The client's cognitive functioning

Q: The diagnosis of "unspecified" should be used when a client's symptoms meet clinical significance but does not meet strict diagnostic criteria. a. True b. False

Q: You are making a diagnosis using the DSM-5. You believe this individual's impairment to functioning and/or distress is of clinical significance. However, his list of symptoms to meet criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is one short of that required in the DSM. Which would be the most accurate way to write this diagnosis?a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Rule-Out b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Traitsc. Generalized Anxiety Disorder, NOSd. Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Other Specified, insufficient symptoms e. Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Unspecified

Q: a. Cluster A b. Cluster B c. Cluster CThese individuals seem bizarre or unusual in their behaviors and interpersonal relations.

Q: a. Cluster A b. Cluster B c. Cluster CThese individuals tend to appear anxious, worried, or fretful in their behaviors.

Q: a. Cluster A b. Cluster B c. Cluster CThese individuals seem overly emotional, are melodramatic, or are unpredictable in their behaviors and interpersonal relations.

Q: The phrase "specify current severity" when making a DSM-5 diagnosis allows the clinician greater flexibility is describing the level of symptomology.a. Trueb. False

Q: The Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) has been historically considered an unreliable tool. a. Trueb. False

Q: a. By historyb. By self-report c. Provisionald. Rule-out e. TraitsClient informs you of his or her diagnosis

Q: a. By historyb. By self-report c. Provisionald. Rule-out e. TraitsAlmost meets criteria - consider further

Q: a. By historyb. By self-report c. Provisionald. Rule-out e. TraitsNoted in previous records

Q: a. By historyb. By self-report c. Provisionald. Rule-out e. TraitsSeems to meet criteria but will know later

Q: a. By historyb. By self-report c. Provisionald. Rule-out e. TraitsHas many features of this diagnosis

Q: Paraphilic disorders:

Q: Personality disorders:

Q: Neurocognitive disorders:

Q: Substance-related and addictive disorders: