Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT)?a. It is for students grades 7 through 12 and measures students' ability to learn or succeed in a number of different areas.b. It includes a Career Interest Inventory to determine what careers might be of interest to the individual taking the test.c. The DAT has eight separate tests that measure a variety of areas important for success in a number of areas. d. It has shown fairly good reliability and validity, although there is little evidence of predictive validity.e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is true about the FYI, which is a part of the ASVAB CEP?a. It helps students determine what they like to do rather than what they can do. b. It uses scales similar to the COPSystem.c. The instrument focuses on abilities rather than interests.d. Currently applicable to the military, there are plans to have the ASVAB introduced to the general public in the next few years.e. None of these is true.

Q: Which of the following is true about the ASVAB?a. The paper-and-pencil version of the ASVAB is scored in the same manner as the computerized version of the ASVAB.b. The paper-and-pencil version of the ASVAB takes twice as long as to administer as the computerized version.c. The FYI section of the ASVAB allows respondents to determine their abilities across several domains.d. Although the ASVAB has high reliability, its ability to predict success in military occupations is low.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the ASVAB? a. It consists of 10 power tests for which separate scores are given. b. The power tests have been shown to measure similar qualities than are measured in intelligence tests. c. Combinations of the power tests form three composite scores are in the areas of verbal skills, math skills, and science and technical skills d. The three composite scores tend to be important for success in a number of jobs

Q: If during the development of a multiple aptitude test, the test publisher finds a number of high correlations among several of their subtests, this could be an indication of:a. high validity, as the test shows inter-test purity.b. high reliability, as the tests are highly correlated with one another.c. the need for further refinement of the test, as some of the subtests may be measuring similar factors. d. low practicality because time could be saved by administering less tests.e. none of these.

Q: Which of the following is true about the O*NET?a. The content model describes eight domains across industry standards and OSHA requirements. b. The career exploration tools can be downloaded for a small fee.c. Forecasted job growth and job openings are available for each occupation. d. Government agencies can post available job openings for free.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the O*NET?a. It is a large online database available free to the public.b. A section of O*NET allows for the posting of available jobs.c. The content model has six domains, which are either work-oriented or job-oriented. d. The O*NET systems offers free career exploration tools.

Q: The COPSystem is known for which of the following?a. Hexagon model of personality typesb. Eight occupational groups and six levels determined by parenting stylec. Eight career clusters primarily determined by an ability placement survey d. Three dimensional cube containing 180 different career groups or clusters e. None of these

Q: Which of the following is true about the COPSystem?a. It offers norms for a wide-range of individuals, thus making it versatile.b. It offers a measure of intellectual abilities (intelligence), which can be useful for predicting success in college or other technical fields.c. In addition to an interest inventory, it offers a measurement of abilities and a measurement of values, all of which can be used in the career counseling process.d. It offers look-up indices that are useful for determining salaries, working conditions, and occupational outlook. e. All of these are true.

Q: The COPSystem includes all of the following assessment instruments EXCEPT:a. the Career Survey of Performance and Salary Indices.b. the Career Occupational Preference System Interest Inventory. c. the Career Ability Placement Survey.d. the Career Orientation Placement and Evaluation Survey.

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the Occupations Finder, the Dictionary of Holland Occupational Codes, and O*NET?a. To identify abilities of the individualb. To identify strengths and weaknesses of the various Holland Codesc. To find salary ranges and job descriptions of various Holland Codesd. To cross-reference Holland Codes with various occupations

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the Self-Directed Search?a. It was developed by John Holland. b. It uses the Holland Code.c. It can be self-administered and self-scored.d. It is offered in one form, which can be used by elementary students, high school students, and adults. e. Reliability has tended to be high and there is evidence of validity through numerous studies.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the Holland Codes?a. Realisticb. Enterprising c. Artisticd. Sociale. Contemporary

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the Response Summary on the Strong?a. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied in their jobsb. To identify an individual's broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)c. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test d. To identify an individual's top three Holland Codese. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, and risk taking/adventure

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the Personal Style Scales on the Strong? a. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test b. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied in their jobs c. To identify an individual's top three Holland Codes d. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team orientation e. To identify an individual's broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the Occupational Scales on the Strong?a. To identify an individual's broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)b. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same sex individuals who are satisfied in their jobsc. To identify an individual's top three Holland Codes d. To give a breakdown of client responses on the teste. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team orientation

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the Basic Interest Scales on the Strong? a. To identify an individual's top three Holland Codes b. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team orientation c. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied in their jobs d. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test e. To identify an individual's broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)

Q: Which of the following describes the purpose of the General Occupational Themes on the Strong?a. To identify an individual's top three Holland Codesb. To identify an individual's broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)c. To give a breakdown of client responses on the testd. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team orientatione. None of these

Q: Which of the following is NOT a popular interest inventory?a. The Self-Directed Searchb. The Career Occupational Preference System c. The Strong Vocational Interest Inventoryd. The Interest, Skill, and Career Assessment Inventory e. The Campbell Interest and Skill Survey

Q: Which of the following is true about interest inventories?a. They are based on an individual's abilities.b. They are helpful in assessing one's intellect in order to make conclusions about career choice. c. They need little if any assistance to interpret.d. They are fairly good at predicting job satisfaction based on occupational fit.

Q: Cattell-Horn-Carroll Integrated Model of Intelligence

Q: Sternberg's Triarchic Theory of Successful Intelligence

Q: Gardner's Theory of Multiple Intelligences

Q: Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

Q: Guilford's Multi Factor/Dimensional Model

Q: Cattell's Fluid and Crystal Intelligence

Q: Vernon's Hierarchal Model of Intelligence

Q: Thurstone's Multifactor Approach

Q: a. Process model, not a cognitive gain model. Cognitive structures are developed through a process of assimilation and accommodation.b. The capacity to use one's abilities, navigate novel situations, and manage one's environment to achieve his or her goals.c. The "g" factor mediates general intelligence and "s" factor mediates specific abilities.d. All people have some of eight or nine factors: Verbal-Linguistic, Mathematical-Logical, Musical, Visual- Spatial, Bodily-Kinesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, Naturalist, and Existentiale. Has 16 broad ability factors, of which 6 are tentative.f. Two "g" factors: gf intelligence: innate culturally free intelligence; and gc: acquired as we learn.g. Four levels 1: "g" factor; 2: major group factors, verbal­numerical­educational and practical­mechanical­spatial-physical, 3: minor group factors, and 4: specific factors.h. Seven factors related to "g": verbal meaning, number ability, word fluency, perception speed, spatial ability, reasoning, and memory.i. Three kinds of cognitive ability: operations; contents, and product. 180 possible combinations.Spearman's Two-Factor Approach

Q: The fixed battery approach to neuropsychology is helpful to the clinician because it is relatively inexpensive and takes less time to administer than other approaches.a. Trueb. False

Q: The flexible battery approach to neuropsychology is helpful to the clinician because he or she can tailor the instruments to each individual. a. True b. False

Q: The astute examiner knows that the assessment of intelligence is complex and that intelligence, as measured by intelligence tests, is based on a number of factors including the environment, genetics, and biology. a. True b. False

Q: Those individuals who have had a basic testing course in their graduate program and no other advanced training are well equipped to give an individual intelligence test. a. True b. False

Q: School psychology programs and doctoral programs in counseling and clinical psychology often offer coursework in intelligence testing. a. True b. False

Q: Although the WISC-IV is helpful in determining a broad array of cognitive functioning, it generally is a poor test to determine giftedness. a. True b. False

Q: Confidence intervals on the WISV-IV reflect measurement error in the test. a. Trueb. False

Q: On the Stanford-Binet, testing continues until the ceiling level is reached, or the point where the individual misses all of the questions on two consecutive age levels. a. True b. False

Q: On the Stanford-Binet, the basal level is determined, which is the highest point where the examinee is able to get all the questions right on two consecutive age levels. a. True b. False

Q: Because individual intelligence tests are given by an examiner, one-on-one, there is great opportunity for error in their administration and their reliability tends to be low. a. True b. False

Q: Gardner's Theory of Multiple Intelligences asserts there are eight or nine intelligences and is based on his research of brain-damaged individuals, as well as literature in the areas of the brain, evolution, genetics, psychology and anthropology. a. True b. False

Q: Piaget's understanding of cognitive development was a "gain model" as opposed to a "process model." a. Trueb. False

Q: Cattell found heritability of fluid (innate) intelligence to be around .92, which basically means if your parents have it, you are likely to have it. a. True b. False

Q: Crystallized (learned) intelligence will generally increase with age while fluid (innate) intelligence tends to slightly decline as we age. a. True b. False

Q: Thurstone believed that intelligence was established from one primary factor similar to Spearman's "g." a. Trueb. False

Q: In Spearman's two-factor approach to intelligence, the amount of "g" or "s" varies as a function of the characteristic being examined. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the Boston Process Approach (BPA) to neuropsychological assessment?a. There is a strong emphasis on qualitative data.b. It requires all examinees to take the same set of instruments.c. It has been heavily researched and there is ample psychometric data available. d. Results are widely accepted in courts of law.e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of the flexible battery approach over the fixed battery approach in neuropsychological assessment?a. Clinicians require much less training in neuropsychology using the flexible battery approach. b. The flexible battery approach is considered more scientific, which aids in legal trials.c. The flexible battery approach is more adaptive to specific needs.d. The flexible battery approach is more objective because it does not rely on qualitative data. e. All of these are true.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the Halsted-Reitan Battery for neuropsychological assessment?a. It is relatively inexpensive to administer and use.b. Severity of damage can be learned from this battery.c. This instrument can be administered in about one and one-half hours. d. There is a strong emphasis on qualitative data.e. None of these is true.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the fixed battery approach to neuropsychological assessment?a. They typically use cut-off scores to indicate severity of impairment.b. They are relatively quick and inexpensive compared to other approaches. c. They emphasize the use of qualitative data.d. They allow the clinician to select which instruments he or she believes will be most useful in the assessment process.e. None of these is true.

Q: In neuropsychological assessment, an individual's scores are best compared against which of the following?a. A large normative sample based on U.S. census data stratified for gender, age, race, and geographical region b. A norm group consisting of individuals who have the same psychopathology as your clientc. A norm group of both healthy "normal" individuals and those suffering from a wide variety of mental illness d. The estimated level of functioning of your individual before onset of the illnesse. None of these

Q: A neuropsychological assessment is most likely to be used in which of the following situations?a. In diagnosing a student for a learning disabilityb. For a client who may have suffered a traumatic brain injury c. In assessing a student for a gifted programd. In assessing a patient recently diagnosed with schizophrenia e. All of these are potential situations.

Q: In assessing a child with autism, the best instrument for measuring intelligence is most likely the:a. SB5.b. WPPS-III. c. WISC-IV. d. UNIT.e. KABC-II.

Q: You are working with a 9-year-old child who suffers from a language-based learning disability. You need to assess this child's intelligence, but you are concerned you may not get an accurate assessment due to his disability. Which instrument might give you the most accurate values?a. KABC-II b. CTONI-2 c. WISC-IV d. WPPSI-III e. SB5

Q: Which of the following abuses have occurred over the years as a by-product of the administration of intelligence tests?a. The maintenance of the status quo (e.g., those who are verbally brighter over those who have musical ability)b. The miscalculation of intelligence of minoritiesc. The over-classification of individuals who are learning disabled d. A means to differentiate social classese. All of these

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children?a. It is geared for children ages 3 through 18.b. Although geared toward children ages 3 through 18, it is also excellent for individuals suffering from dementia and debilitating brain injuries.c. Examiners can choose subtests based on one of two theoretical models of intelligence.d. The test specifically measures for visual processing, fluid reasoning, and short-term and long-term memory. e. The test has high reliability estimates.

Q: Which of the following is true about the WISC-IV?a. It provides a full scale IQ.b. It provides four composite scores useful in identifying learning problems. c. Subtests use a mean of 10 and a standard deviation of 3.d. The full scale IQ is reported with a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15. e. All of these are true.

Q: Which model or theory of intelligence is mostly closely aligned to the WISC-IV and WAIS-IV?a. Vernon b. Gardnerc. Sternbergd. Cattell-Horn-Carroll

Q: Which of the following is true about the Wechsler tests?a. The three tests are used for individuals aged 4 through 85+, based on expected intellectual levels. b. The tests have been created independently and have little in common.c. The WISC-IV is a downward extension of the WAIS-IV, and the WPPSI-III is a downward extension of the WISC-IV.d. The tests show little or no correlation with the Stanford-Binet.

Q: Which of the following factors go into determining where to start and finish the Stanford-Binet?a. A routing test b. The basal level c. The ceiling level d. All of thesee. None of these

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the Stanford-Binet?a. It is probably the most well-known individual test of intelligence.b. It can be given to individuals between the ages of 2 and 90+ years.c. It measures verbal and nonverbal intelligence across five different factors. d. It has been criticized for showing meager reliability and validity estimates.

Q: Which of the following is true about the Cattell-Horn-Carroll Model of Intelligence?a. Cattell, Horn, and Carroll believe a gfactor mediates their multiple abilities.b. Cattell, Horn, and Carroll worked together and alone to develop this theory in a single year. c. They used factor analysis to parse out or separate their multiple abilities.d. Their model disputes and is contrary to the work of Gardner and Sternberg.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a key concept of Sternberg's theory of intelligence?a. The ability to tackle deep questions about human existenceb. The ability to adapt to an environment or change the environment as neededc. The ability of high-order thinking, acting on that thinking, and storing the information d. The ability to deal with new situations

Q: Which statement reflects one of the concepts of Sternberg's theory of intelligence?a. Body-Kinesthetic intelligence is a key component.b. Part of intelligence is knowing your weaknesses and compensating for them. c. Intelligence remains the same across cultures.d. People can be highly intelligent yet be unsuccessful in life and pursuit of their goals.

Q: Which of the following is NOT attributed to Gardner?a. All human beings possess a certain amount of all of the intelligences. b. Intelligence is largely innate and probably mediated by a "g" factor.c. All humans have different profiles or amounts of the multiple.d. Intelligences are manifested by the way a person carries out a task in relationship to his or her goals. e. Intelligences can work independently or together and each is located in separate parts of the brain.

Q: Which of the following is true about Gardner's Theory of Multiple Intelligence? a. It is considered a "dipstick" theory of intelligence either you have certain intelligences or you don't. b. There is little research to back his statements. c. He relies heavily on the belief that "g" mediates all intelligence. d. Some have criticized his model as being another traditional model that probably adds little. e. He believes that intelligence is vaster and more complex than how we currently measure it.

Q: Which is true about Piaget's understanding of cognitive development? a. His approach was often given the name "gain model" because he examined how intelligence grew as individuals aged. b. He viewed cognitive changes in a process framework. c. He believed that complex cognitive structures had little impact on our understanding of the world. What mattered was our genetics. d. All of these are true. e. None of these are true.

Q: Based on Piaget's understanding of cognitive development, he came up with the term accommodation, which is:a. how information is incorporated into existing cognitive structures.b. how we create new cognitive structures and/or behaviors to incorporate new information.c. how the brain creates neuropathways in order to adapt.d. the bio-medical mechanism for understanding learning. e. none of these.

Q: Based on Piaget's understanding of cognitive development, he came up with the term assimilation, which is:a. how information is incorporated into existing cognitive structures.b. how we create new cognitive structures and/or behaviors to incorporate new information.c. how the brain creates neuropathways in order to adapt.d. the bio-medical mechanism for understanding learning. e. none of these.

Q: Cattell's idea that there are two types of main intelligences, crystallized (acquired) and fluid (innate), came from:a. his animosity toward the Eugenics movement and his personal belief that cultural factors and learned behaviors must play a part in intelligence.b. his research on brain activity.c. his research on child development, especially twin studies.d. his observations that as cultural factors were removed from intelligence tests, marked changes were seen in test scores.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of Guilford's cognitive abilities?a. Functions or the way that cognitive structures work b. Operations or the processes we use in understandingc. Contents or what we use to perform our thinking process d. Product or the end result of our thinking processes

Q: Guilford's model of intelligence can best be described by which of the following?a. A circle in which cognitive operations are recycled.b. A parallelogram in which opposing cognitive functions complement understanding and occur simultaneously. c. A cube with three kinds of cognitive ability and different mental abilities will require different combinations of theseabilities.d. An abyss in which cognitive functions are embedded in unconscious cognitive structures.

Q: Which statement is NOT true about Vernon's Hierarchical Model of Intelligence?a. There were four levels and factors from each lower level contributed to the next level.b. Vernon's top level was comprised of a number of independent factors that mediated all intelligence.c. Level 2 had two major factors: verbal and educational abilities and mechanical-spatial-practical abilities. d. Level 3 is comprised of minor group factors.e. Level 4 is made of specific factors.

Q: Thurstone's model of intelligence is best known for which of the following?a. Differentiating between fluid and crystallized intelligenceb. Seven primary abilities that do not combine to make a "g" factor c. A hierarchical model consisting of four levels of factorsd. The concepts of accommodation and assimilation e. None of these

Q: Spearman's two factor approach included:a. a general factor (g) and a specific factor (s).b. fluid, culturally free intelligence and crystallized, learned intelligence. c. the process factors of assimilation and accommodation.d. higher order and lower order intelligence.

Q: In criticizing the Binet Scales created by Alfred Binet, this individual stated that the intelligence test was "a hodgepodge or promiscuous pooling of factors."a. Spearman b. Thurstone c. Vernond. Cattelle. Gardner

Q: Which of the following is NOT a use of intelligence testing? a. To assist in determining giftedness b. To assist in determining mental retardation c. To assist in determining certain types of learning disabilities d. To help understand changes in brain function as a result of accidents, dementia, the aging process, abuse, and disease processes e. Intelligence testing is used for all of these.

Q: State achievement testing to measure success toward the benchmarks of the No Child Left Behind Act has placed pressure on school systems to show that all of their students can excel on cognitive ability tests. a. True b. False

Q: Which standard score is NOT accurate?a. WRAT: Mean of 100, SD of 15 (other standard scores are also available)b. Cognitive Ability Test: Mean of 100, SD of 16 (other standard scores are also available)c. ACT: Mean of 18, SD of 5 for "average" high school students d. SAT: Mean of 500, SD of 100e. MCAT: Mean of 50, SD of 10

Q: Which of the following tests tend to have the weakest reliability and validity?a. Survey battery achievement tests b. Diagnostic testsc. Readiness testsd. K-12 cognitive ability testse. College placement and graduate school cognitive ability tests

Q: Which of the following is legally NOT allowed to sit on a school's special education team?a. School counselorsb. School psychologistsc. Learning disability specialists d. School social workerse. All of these can sit on a school's special education team.