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Q:
Sentence completion tests:a. are projective techniques in which clients respond to the stems of sentences. b. can provide valuable information quickly.c. generally have limited validity and reliability information.d. All of these are characteristics of sentence completion tests.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a type of drawing test discussed in the text?a. House-Tree-Person b. Draw-A-Manc. Draw-A-Womand. Kinetic Family Drawinge. The Developmental Readiness Adaptive Wishlist (DRAW)
Q:
Which of the following is most true regarding drawing tests (e.g. House-Tree-Person)?a. They provide an objective measure to obtain personality deficiencies. b. They can be given quickly and do not require artistic prowess.c. They have been shown to have excellent validity and reliability.d. They can often be used alone in the assessment process due to their test worthiness. e. All of these are true regarding drawing tests.
Q:
On the Bender Gestalt II, it is found that a 4-year-old could not accurately copy any of the figures. This could be an indication of:a. normal behavior, as a 4-year-old should not be able to copy such figures. b. possible developmental delays.c. compulsive behavior.d. age appropriate defensiveness.
Q:
The new version of the Bender Gestalt II:a. has a scoring system from 0 to 5 (5 being near perfect). b. uses 9+ designs to assess an individual.c. has shown promising reliability and validity.d. All of these are characteristics of the new version of the Bender Gestalt II.
Q:
The Bender-Gestalt II measures all of the following EXCEPT:a. developmental level.b. psychological functioning.c. neurological deficits after a traumatic brain injury. d. mental ability.
Q:
The Exner scoring system for the Rorschach relies on all of the following EXCEPT:a. location, or the portion of the blot where the response was made.b. determinants, or the manner in which the examinee understood what he or she saw. c. anchors, or the objects which represent whether the client is grounded in reality.d. content such as whole human, human detail, animal, art, blood, clouds, fire, household items, or sex that can hold specific meaning.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the Rorschach inkblot cards?a. It is the most frequently used projective personality test.b. Rorschach developed his famous inkblot test in 1921, at which point he choose 10 inkblots still in use today. c. It requires extensive training and practice to use.d. Its test worthiness has been extensively researched; today, it shows impressive validity and reliability data.
Q:
Due to probable cross-cultural and age-related concerns of the TAT, which of the following is a similar test created to resolve those concerns?
a. The Southern Mississippi's TAT (SM-TAT)
b. The Apperceptive Personality Test (APT)
c. The Children's Apperception Test (CAT)
d. The Children's Apperception Test (CAT)-H (Humans)
e. All of these
Q:
On which theory is the TAT based?a. Murray's theory of unconscious drives, which states that we are driven by our unmet sexual desires b. Taylor's relation model, which says our unmet relational needs drive our behaviorsc. Murray's need-press personality theory, which states that people are driven by their internal desires (needs) or by external stimuli (press)d. Jung's psychological types, which states that our way of being in the world is based on our innate alliance to one of a number of psychological types
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the Thematic Apperception Test?
a. It has 31 cards.
b. Usually, only 8 to 12 cards are used.
c. Each card has a separate inkblot on it.
d. In response to showing the cards, the examiner asks the client to create and describe a story that has a beginning, middle and end.
Q:
Projective tests:a. are a type of objective personality test.b. are based on the clinician's interpretation of a client's response to a stimuli. c. are used infrequently these days.d. are not considered particularly helpful in the clinical process. e. All of these are characteristics of projective tests.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the SASSI-3?a. It is useful in identifying the severity of substance dependence. b. It is a lengthy test that takes about 60 minutes to administer.c. It can be used as the sole criterion for making a diagnosis.d. The client must be honest in his or her responses to be identified as having a substance dependency. e. None of these are true about the SASSI-3.
Q:
An advantage to the SASSI is that:a. it is relatively quick to administer and score.b. it has a fairly high accuracy in identifying substance dependency in its examinees. c. it can be helpful in treatment planning.d. it can uncover substance abuse problems even if the client minimizes his or her use. e. All of these are true of the SASSI.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Conners 3?a. There is an adult version.b. There are three forms to be completed by parents, teachers, and school administrators. c. It can also be useful in determining depression levels.d. It can be useful for special education eligibility determination.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO PI-3)?a. There is a separate version for children and adolescents.b. There is a version available for a third party observer or rater.c. Each of the five factors measure positive attributes, which most people would like to have more. d. Its sister instrument, the NEO-FFI, has slightly improved reliabilities.e. None of these is true.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO PI-3)?a. It is based on the Big Five personality traits. b. It is based on the work of Raymond Cattell. c. Scoring results provide three validity scales.d. Scores are provided using DIQ (mean of 100; SD of 15). e. There is a "picture only" version available.
Q:
The 16PF:a. provides one global score useful in capturing an individual's personality. b. uses the same personality codes as the MBTI.c. only takes 15 to 20 minutes to administer, although the instrument must be given individually. d. has five global scores developed from the primary 16 factors.e. None of these are characteristics of the 16PF.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Sixteen Personality Factors Questionnaire (16PF)?a. It is a measure to assist in the identification of psychopathology. b. The primary factors are traits along a bipolar continuum.c. The traits were developed by numerous researchers having similar findings. d. It does not use validity scales.e. All of these are true.
Q:
The four dichotomies, or dimensions, of the Myers-Briggs:a. can result in 16 different personality styles. b. can assist in deeper understanding of self.c. are used to examine differences and similarities of personality types in families, business and industry, and in career counseling.d. All of these are true.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the dichotomies or dimensions on the Myers-Briggs?a. Extroverted or introverted b. Sensing or intuitingc. Experiencing or deducting d. Thinking or feelinge. Judging or perceiving
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI) and anxiety measurement?a. Men tend to score higher than women.b. Older people tend to score higher than younger people.c. Anxiety instruments correlate high with depression instruments, muddling the distinction between the two constructs.d. None of these are true.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI)?a. It can be administered and scored in 5 to 10 minutes.b. Due to its age (created in 1993), the BAI is used infrequently. c. It can be used with children and adults.d. Most therapists prefer the computerized version due to the sometimes challenging scoring and interpretation.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the BDI-II?a. Due to its ease of administration, it can be useful to measure progress in therapy. b. Specific questions seem to be an indication of hopelessness and suicidal ideation. c. Evidence of reliability is meager.d. Content and criterion validity were improved for the test by following the DSM-IV criterion of depression.
Q:
The Beck Depression Inventory II (BDI-II):a. is useful in identifying and assessing the severity of symptoms of depression. b. is a rather lengthy test that takes about 45 minutes to take.c. is a test that can be used as the sole criterion for making a diagnosis of depression. d. uses a standard deviation of 10 and mean of 75 in assessing scores.e. All of these are characteristics of the BDI-II.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the MMPI-II and the PAI?a. The MMPI-II is quicker to administer than the PAI.b. They both cover clinical disorders (formerly Axis I) only. c. Only the MMPI-II has validity scales.d. The PAI may be more effective than the MMPI-II. e. None of these is true.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes the Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) was designed for?a. Aid in making a clinical diagnosisb. Assist in identifying "normal" human behavior c. Screening for psychopathologyd. Assist in treatment planning e. All of these
Q:
The special Corrections Report available with the MCMI-II does which of the following?
a. Describes the examinee's tendency to "spin" the truth about self
b. Shows probable need for mental health services, anger management services, escape risk from prison, and suicidal tendencies
c. Provides a correction factor based on the examinee's defensiveness
d. Provides the standard error of measurement on the test, and thus shows the range of the "true score" of an individual
e. None of these
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a major scale of the Millon?a. The Clinical Personality Pattern Scales b. The Neuroticism Scalesc. The Severe Personality Pathology Scales d. The Clinical Syndrome Scalese. The Severe Clinical Syndrome Scales
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the Millon-III (the MCMI-III)?a. It is the second most used objective personality test.b. It is designed to assess personality disorders (formerly Axis II of DSM-IV) and psychopathology. c. There is an adolescent version.d. It generally takes longer to administer as compared to the MMPI-II.
Q:
Which is true about the Basic Scales of the MMPI-II?a. They give an indication of the amount of defensiveness, faking good, and faking bad on the test. b. They offer a mechanism for understanding the etiology of a client's personalityc. They are useful in diagnosis and treatment planning.d. Individual subtest scores are generally more important than patterns of scores when making decisions about clients.e. All of these are true.
Q:
On the MMPI, which of the following is NOT a validity scale?a. The B (basic) scaleb. The F (infrequency) scale c. The K (correction) scale d. The L (lie) scale
Q:
One of the greatest advantages in using the MMPI-II is which of the following?a. Its ease in interpretation of the resultsb. Its speed of administration (25 minutes or less)c. Its helpfulness in identifying possible clinical disorders (formerly Axis I) and psychopathology d. Its helpfulness in identifying possible personality disorders (formerly Axis II)e. Its helpfulness in identifying personality characteristics of generally mentally healthy and "normal" individuals
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the MMPI? a. It is the most widely used diagnostic personality test. b. The MMPI-II has close to 600 items.c. One should have taken at least a basic graduate testing course and a course in psychopathology to administer it.d. An adolescent version has been developed.e. Its focus is on personality disorders (Axis II disorders of DSM-IV-TR).
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a use of clinical assessment?a. To assist in court decisions b. To identify psychopathologyc. To aid in diagnostic decisions for health related problems (e.g., Alzheimer's)d. To identify individuals at risk (e.g., students at risk for suicide)e. All of these are uses.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a use of clinical assessment?a. To help clients gain greater insightb. To aid in case conceptualization and mental health diagnostic formulationsc. To assist in the decision-making concerning the use of psychotropic medications d. To assist in treatment planninge. All of these are uses.
Q:
The Self-Directed Search
Q:
The Advanced Measures of Music Audiation
Q:
The Campbell Interest and Skill Survey (CISS)
Q:
The Group Test of Musical Ability
Q:
The Differential Aptitude Battery for Personnel and Career Assessment
Q:
The Iowa Test of Music Literacy
Q:
The COPSystem
Q:
The Music Aptitude Profile
Q:
The Differential Aptitude Test
Q:
The Bennett Test of Mechanical Comprehension
Q:
The Arco Mechanical Aptitude and Spatial Relations Tests
Q:
The Wiesen Test of Mechanical Aptitude
Q:
The Mechanical Aptitude Test (MAT-3C)
Q:
The Keynotes Music Evaluation Software Kit
Q:
The Strong Interest Inventory
Q:
The Career Assessment Inventory
Q:
The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery
Q:
The Find Your Interests Inventory
Q:
SIGI 3
Q:
The U.S. Postal Service's 473 Battery Examination
Q:
The Minnesota Clerical Assessment Battery
Q:
a. Interest Inventoryb. Multiple Aptitude Test c. Special Aptitude TestClerical Test Battery
Q:
Because occupational and career assessment has such a narrow focus, these instruments should only be administered by school counselors highly trained in them and school psychologists.a. Trueb. False
Q:
The predictive validity of the DAT PCA is excellent. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Composite scores on the ASVAB can be associated with job occupations in the U.S. Department of Labor'sOccupational Information Network (O*NET). a. Trueb. False
Q:
The FYI instrument in the ASVAB CEP uses the Holland Codes. a. Trueb. False
Q:
The ASVAB has been shown to predict poorly for military occupations. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Studies have shown the ASVAB to predict success in military occupations ranging from 0.36 to 0.77. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Although starting out as strictly a test for the military, the ASVAB has been altered over the years and is now useful for both civilian and military occupations.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Differential Aptitude Test is the most widely used multiple aptitude test in the world. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Factor analysis is an important tool in the development of interest inventories as they help determine patterns and calculate which tests have a high degree of commonality.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The COPS is based on high school and college curriculum as well as sources of occupational information. a. Trueb. False
Q:
The Strong Interest Inventory can be self-administered and self-scored, and thus a counselor to guide its interpretation is not recommended.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When placed on a hexagon, the closer the Holland interest areas are to one another, the more similar are their qualities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The combination of an interest inventory with a multiple aptitude test allows one to examine two important attributes in the career choice process.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The COPSystem is useful for identifying interests, but not ability or values. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Interest inventories are used to assess the ability of an individual. a. Trueb. False
Q:
Choosing a career is likely related to all of the following EXCEPT:a. psychodynamic issues (e.g., parental influences).b. social pressures (e.g., racism, sexism, peer pressure).c. environmental concerns (e.g., the economy, outlook for an occupation). d. family issues (e.g., sibling rivalry, family order).e. All of these are related to choosing a career.
Q:
The process of thinking about music in one's mind without it actually being there is called:a. musical ability.b. musical aptitude. c. musicology.d. audiation. e. audiology.
Q:
Mechanical aptitude tests measure which of the following?a. The ability to learn physical and mechanical principles and manipulate mechanical objects b. Grip strengthc. The ability in carpentry and cabinetryd. The manner individuals think about spatial principles and their ability to place objects in the world e. None of these
Q:
Based on your readings in the text, special aptitude tests can be found in all of the following areas EXCEPT:a. mechanical. b. clerical.c. artistic.d. recreational. e. musical.
Q:
A major reason for using a special aptitude test is:a. to determine if an individual has interest in a particular occupation.b. to examine a heterogeneous area of ability in order to make career decisions. c. to determine if an individual has ability in a specific area of interest.d. All of these are reasons.e. None of these are reasons.
Q:
Special aptitude tests:
a. measure a homogenous area of ability.
b. are generally used to predict success in a specific vocational area of interest.
c. are frequently used as a screening process to assess one's ability to perform a certain job or to master a new skill at work.
d. All of these are characteristics of special aptitude tests.
e. None of these are characteristics of special aptitude tests.
Q:
In contrast to the Differential Aptitude Test, The Differential Aptitude Battery for Personnel and CareerAssessment (DAT PCA):a. uses stanines and percentiles. b. only has five tests.c. is focused on helping employers determine one's current ability and aptitude for learning new skills during training.d. All of these are characteristics of the DAT PCA.