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Q:
In California, about how many of the nearly 120,000 registered sex offenders have committed crimes against children?
a. 1/3
b. 40,000
c. 2/3
d. 10,000
Q:
Describe how the trauma-control model of violent behavior explains the cyclical experience of serial offenders.
10
Q:
Discuss how social class theory explains why male serial killers usually select female victims.
Q:
Discuss how social structure theory provides insight into serial murder.
Q:
The _____ of violent behavior describes, in effect, the cyclical experience of serial offenders.
Q:
_____ views abnormal behavior as a process by which a person graduates from primary deviance to secondary deviance.
Q:
Sykes and Matza (1957) and Matza (1964) view the process of delinquent youths becoming criminals as a matter of _____ their personal values and attitudes as they drift between conventional behavior and illegitimate behavior.
Q:
_____ contend that criminal behavior is a function of a socialization process.
Q:
_____ focus on individuals' socioeconomic standing, suggesting that poor people commit more crimes because they are stifled in their quest for financial or social success.
Q:
Classical control theory contends that punishment deters prospective murderers.
Q:
Serial killers generally deny the victim according to neutralization theory.
Q:
According to social process theory, family has no significant effect on youths' delinquent or violent behavior.
Q:
According to social structure theory, a child who is very attached to his/her parents will be less likely to engage in criminal behavior.
Q:
A social structure theorist would not say that criminal behavior is a function of a socialization process.
Q:
Cline outlined a four-factor syndrome involving pornography. Which of the following is NOT one of those factors?a. decompressionb. addictionc. acting outd. escalation
Q:
What does the "Mephisto Syndrome" describe?
a. a combination of dissociation and psychopathy
b. feelings of extreme frustration followed by aggression
c. characteristics of both psychotic and psychopathic persons
d. a combination of dissociation and psychosis
Q:
Offenders may suppress traumatic event(s) to the point where he or she cannot consciously recall the experience(s). What may this be called?
a. causal overkill
b. psychodynamic violence
c. splitting off the experience
d. psychological trauma
Q:
For the psychopath, becoming adept as a serial killer requires perfecting this.
a. rationalization and unconscious pretense
b. rationalization and conscious pretense
c. conscious pretense
d. rationalization
Q:
According to Hickey, what is the most likely explanation for serial murder?
a. organic brain pathology
b. childhood traumatization
c. mental illness
d. role modeling
Q:
Hickey, in his Fresno Juvenile Fire study, noted all of the following about children who set fires except _____.
a. They are more frequently spanked or isolated from others than non-fire-setters.
b. They report bad experiences at home.
c. Their families often face financial problems, family restructuring, or relocation.
d. They often grow up to be arsonists.
Q:
According to Fineman's typologies of fire-setters, which of the following most closely resembles the profile of certain types of serial killers?
a. cry for help
b. delinquent
c. anti-social
d. revenge
Q:
What percentage of the time is a child's enuresis considered to be a "red flag" of something more serious?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 50
Q:
What does Patterson's "coercive family interaction patterns" suggest about abused children over time?
a. start fires in order to kill their abusers
b. report the abuse to authorities
c. rebel against the abuse
d. view abuse as normal
Q:
What does Price & Dodge's intention-cue detection refer to?
a. attributional bias
b. reformational bias
c. fire-setting behavior
d. conduct disorder
Q:
What should parents or guardians do when children are cruel to animals, according to Margaret Mead and other researchers?
a. never punish or discipline the child as they are already traumatized
b. always hold the child responsible through discipline
c. never hold the child responsible through punishment
d. always report such abuse to local authorities
Q:
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Children who are physically or sexually abused seem to mimic their mistreatment on their companion animals.
b. For a mistreated child, power and dominance is preferable to the plight of helplessness.
c. Animal cruelty may signify a child's preoccupation with death and that the child may be rehearsing their own suicide.
d. Cruelty to animals during childhood occurs much more often among aggressive criminals than among non-aggressive criminals or non-criminals.
Q:
Which of the following is not part of the MacDonald Triad?
a. fire-setting
b. animal cruelty
c. burglary
d. enuresis
Q:
This killer of 10 victims, including his grandparents and mother, explained that "he was killing his mother all along."
a. Craig Price
b. Eric Harris
c. Richard A.
d. Ed Kemper
Q:
What are the three categories of offenders that Kirby classified?
a. primary juvenile offenders, secondary juvenile offenders, and tertiary juvenile offenders
b. primary juvenile offenders, maturing juvenile offenders, and secondary juvenile offenders
c. maturing juvenile offenders, mature juvenile offenders, adult offenders
d. juvenile offenders, adult offenders, and elderly offenders
Q:
What are the four types of juvenile killers that Myers identified in his study?
a. explosive, predatory, revenge, displaced matricide
b. explosive, predatory, revenge, displaced patricide
c. calm, predatory, revenge, displaced matricide
d. explosive, rational, revenge, displaced matricide
Q:
Who perpetrates the most mass murders in grammar schools, junior high, and high schools?
a. pre-pubescent juveniles
b. teenagers
c. adults
d. teachers
Q:
According to Brown, et al., what is the culture of honor hypothesis?
a. It describes a thinking disorder that is difficult to treat.
b. Habitual criminals who are honorable experience internal conflicts when committing crimes.
c. States that place high regard on social status and strength in regards to one's property, reputation, and family will have higher rates of violence and aggression than states classified as non-culture-of-honor states.
d. An idea that describes organized civil disobedience.
Q:
Less than _____ of all homicides in the United States are committed by juveniles.
a. 59 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 1 percent
d. 10 percent
Q:
How does Becker describe "moral entrepreneurs?"
a. people who create rules
b. religious zealots
c. persons who exploit those with moral values
d. persons who punish others for not sharing their same values
Q:
What do Hirschi's four elements of the social bond include?
a. alliances, involvement, participation, and belief
b. attachment, participation, cooperation, and regulation
c. attachment, commitment, involvement, and belief
d. alliances, commitment, cooperation, and regulation
Q:
As children at risk become adolescents, some of them will find themselves engaged in what Goffman referred to as _____ or places where routine degradation processes are the norm for stripping away individualism in order for conformity, compliance, and altruism to flourish.
a. partial institutions
b. state institutions
c. social institutions
d. total institutions
Q:
How does Miller refer to "soul murder" in her book For Your Own Good?
a. the horrible effects of being raised in an abusive foster home
b. extraordinary beatings and sexual abuses of young children by parents and relatives
c. the desire of some serial killers to not only kill children but to first destroy them emotionally
d. the effect of pervasive violence within our penal system that precludes criminals from ever being rehabilitated
Q:
What does the "coercive cycle" refer to?
a. parents learning abusive parenting techniques from their parents, then carrying them out with their own children
b. the revolving door of our punitive criminal justice system that perpetuates violent crime
c. the sexual exploitation of children
d. foster children being moved from one abusive family to the next that often leads them to become abusers themselves
Q:
According to researchers, what is the social learning of violence a direct result of?
a. being victimized
b. biological influences
c. gun ownership
d. viewing violence
Q:
According to Bandura, how can aggressive and violent behavior be substantially reduced?
a. providing appropriate non-violent role models
b. physically punishing children for aggressive behavior
c. allowing children to blow off steam in socially acceptable ways
d. controlling the sale of guns and weapons in our society
Q:
These theories contend that criminal behavior is a function of a socialization process.
a. social process theory
b. social structure theory
c. social control theory
d. labeling theory
Q:
Gunn, in her research on social class and serial murder, found that adult male victims are selected by social-class standing, whereas adult female victims are selected on the basis of their _____.
a. sexuality
b. financial standing
c. gender
d. race
Q:
A general argument posited by feminists regarding serial murder is that women are usually selected as victims because of their _____.
a. powerlessness
b. sexuality
c. race
d. social class
Q:
What is the term for sociological theories that focus primarily upon an individual's socioeconomic standing to explain crime?
a. social process theories
b. social structure theories
c. social control theories
d. labeling theories
Q:
Analyze the constant need of psychopaths to be in control of their social and physical environment. Why would a psychopath feel this need?
Q:
Why is insanity a legal term and not a psychiatric distinction?
Q:
Discuss current research that supports biochemical factors, such as nutrition and environment, as a cause of antisocial behavior.
Q:
In 1980, _____ created a diagnostic tool referred to as the "Psychopathy Checklist."
Q:
The term _____ is a non-diagnostic label used to describe a potpourri of individuals determined by societal standards to possess characteristics at variance with general community standards and practices.
Q:
_____, common among violent offenders, includes a history of antisocial behavior beginning no later than age 15 for males, and for females anytime during the teen years.
Q:
_____ appear to be the most resistant to change.
Q:
Having more than one _____ may be an attempt to suppress or deny severe traumatization as a child.
Q:
Worry and anxiety about future is a characteristic of the psychopath.
Q:
Asperger's Disorder is a milder variant of autism.
Q:
Dissociative identity disorder is sometimes referred to as the "UFO of psychiatry."
Q:
Recent research has suggested that serotonin has no role in creating violent behavior.
Q:
There is a correlation between head trauma and violent behavior.
Q:
Criminal psychopaths make up about what percentage of the male inmate population in prison?
a. 10-15
b. 20-30
c. 85-90
d. 45-55
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a Factor 2 characteristic found in Hare's Revised Psychopathy Checklist?
a. parasitic lifestyle
b. early behavioral problems
c. need for stimulation
d. promiscuous sexual behavior
Q:
What is the condition of the primary psychopath?
a. usually neurotic
b. always criminal
c. usually violent and destructive
d. always a social chameleon
Q:
This term was introduced by J. L. A. Koch in 1891.
a. histrionic
b. criminology
c. psychopath
d. sociopath
Q:
At his trial, Ted Kaczynski was found to be _____.
a. paranoid schizophrenic
b. insane
c. suffering from a personality disorder
d. suffering from Asperger's disorder
Q:
This disorder is characterized by orderliness, perfectionism, and inflexible behaviors.
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. non-phobic panic disorder
c. kleptomania
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q:
Which one of the following sets of descriptors best applies to paranoid personality disorders?
a. unpredictable, irresponsible, guiltless
b. theatrical, dependent, dysphoric
c. pervasive distrust, suspiciousness of others
d. aloof, detached, humorless
Q:
This type is a pervasive pattern of detachment from relationships, including limited expression of emotions.
a. paranoid
b. schizotypal
c. histrionic
d. schizoid
Q:
Which of the DSM-V classifications of personality disorders is characterized by social and interpersonal deficits, and eccentric behaviors that inhibit the development of close relationships?
a. borderline
b. schizoid
c. narcissistic
d. schizotypal
Q:
Which is not part of the "Big Five" theory of personality?
a. neuroticism
b. introversion
c. openness to experiences
d. agreeableness
Q:
Which dissociative disorder involves a person feeling detached from his/her mental processes or physical body?
a. fugue
b. depersonalization
c. amnesia
d. identity
Q:
Humans are shaped and determined by their environment, and behavior is learned via conditioning.
a. psychoanalytic therapy
b. existential therapy
c. Gestalt therapy
d. person-centered therapy
e. none of the above
Q:
According to _____, the mind is constantly engaged in balancing the three-part personality structure of id, ego, and superego.
a. Freud
b. Hickey
c. Fuller
d. Hare
Q:
The client has a tendency toward becoming fully functioning and moves toward openness, trust in self, spontaneity, and inner directedness.
a. psychoanalytic therapy
b. cognitive-behavior therapy
c. behavior therapy
d. family systems therapy
e. person-centered therapy
Q:
In this approach, the person's quality world is explored.
a. Gestalt therapy
b. behavior therapy
c. reality therapy
d. psychoanalytic therapy
e. person-centered therapy
Q:
This suggests that a person feels that his or her surroundings are not real or are detached.
a. derealization
b. unrealization
c. detachment
d. hyper-realization
Q:
Formerly called "psychogenic amnesia," this is a loss of memory due to psychological reasons rather than organic problems.
a. depersonalization-derealization disorder
b. dissociative amnesia
c. negative affectivity
d. sociopathy
Q:
In working with a client, a solution-focused therapist would be least likely to use which of the following techniques?a. co-create new solutions with the clientb. explore problems transmitted from generation to generationc. miracle questionsd. exception questionse. scaling questions
Q:
This mental disorder or syndrome is unintentionally caused in a patient by a clinician or practitioner.
a. iatrogenic
b. tautological fallacy
c. anterograde syndrome
d. symptom substitution
Q:
One item in the series of five does not fit with the other four items. Identify the word or phrase that does not fit with the rest of the series.
(a) reexperiencing one's past
(b) planning and commitment
(c) exploring a client's picture album
(d) refusing to accept excuses
(e) teaching clients self-evaluation
Q:
Formerly known as multiple personality disorder, this is the most widely known dissociative disorder.
a. dissociative identity disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. depersonalization disorder
d. psychopathy
Q:
One item in the series of five does not fit with the other four items. Identify the word or phrase that does not fit with the rest of the series.
(a) joining and accommodation
(b) deconstructing problem-saturated stories
(c) family reconstruction
(d) tracking interactional sequences
(e) enhancing interpersonal communication
Q:
One item in the series of five does not fit with the other four items. Identify the word or phrase that does not fit with the rest of the series.
(a) death and nonbeing
(b) search for meaning
(c) search for unique outcomes,
(d) striving for identity
(e) anxiety as a condition of living