Q&A Hero

Counseling

Q: An emic consideration for a Latina woman who is being battered might be isolation.
Q: Someone who is a transgender prefers to dress as the opposite sex but is not gay.
Q: Homophobia refers to an unreasonable fear or hatred of a homosexual.
Q: Emic issues refer to those behaviors that are universal to most cultures.
Q: Etic issues refer to those behaviors that are particular to a specific culture or subgroup.
Q: African Americans and Asian-Americans usually prefer to deal with counselors in a problem solving model.
Q: Much of the family structure seen in African Americans can be understood in terms of the history of slavery.
Q: African Americans tend to develop a culturally bound syndrome known as Ataque de Nervios.
Q: Secondary traumatization exists when a crisis worker experiences PTSD after working with a person in crisis.
Q: Duty to Warn refers to disclosure of a client's intention to harm another.
Q: Mandatory reporting laws only apply to situations where children are being abuse.
Q: Countertransference refers to the unresolved feelings that the client feels toward the counselor.
Q: Fiduciary abuse may be considered a part of elder abuse.
Q: Dual relationship is legal if the patient is legally insane.
Q: "Coming out" crisis refers to: A. a gay person disclosing his homosexuality to friends and family. B. a disabled person mainstreaming. C. an adolescent admitting guilt for substance abuse. D. none of the above.
Q: Hispanics might be best treated using which theoretical model? A. Psychoanalytical B. Behavioral C. Family systems D. Existential
Q: Shame and obligation are two ideas to keep in mind when working with: A. Mexican-Americans. B. Asian-Americans. C. African-Americans. D. none of the above.
Q: Which is not a typical cultural pattern of Latinos? A. Feminism B. Marianisma C. Machismo D. Familismo
Q: Mexican-American families are most likely to be: A. disengaged. B. matriarchal. C. enmeshed. D. none of the above.
Q: In which stage of cultural sensitivity does the therapist consider culture as distracting from clinical effectiveness? A. Unawareness of cultural issues B. Heightened awareness of culture C. Burden of considering culture D. Toward cultural sensitivity
Q: "Duty to Warn" came from: A. the Tarasoff Case. B. the Child abuse reporting Act of 1966. C. the gravely disabled act of congress. D. none of the above.
Q: A crisis worker must break confidentiality in cases of: A. elder abuse. B. child abuse. C. intent to murder someone. D. all of the above. E. both A and C.
Q: Who may waive the rights of a client's privileged communications spoken in a counseling sessions? A. The therapist B. The client C. The courts D. None of the above
Q: An example of a dual relationship would be: A. sex with a client. B. being friends with a client. C. dating a client. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: A crisis worker who has unresolved feelings toward his own mother and gives advice based on this is suffering from: A. self-awareness. B. dual relationship. C. countertransference. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: Crisis intervention is popular with HMO's and managed care.
Q: Paraprofessionals are not qualified to conduct crisis intervention sessions.
Q: HMOs have just about dissolved the crisis intervention model.
Q: The original population with which Lindemann developed his crisis intervention model was WWII veterans.
Q: Crisis intervention has its beginnings during the time of Freud.
Q: Situational crises often have an emergency quality to them.
Q: The major goal of crisis intervention is to increase the client's functioning.
Q: Cognitive elements are of great importance in crisis work.
Q: Ego strength refers to one's capacity to deal with the demands of reality.
Q: Caplan's list of effective coping people includes the ability to invoke help from others.
Q: It is possible to grow after effective resolution of a crisis.
Q: Everyone who experiences a stressor in life will succumb to a crisis state. F
Q: If left untreated, crisis states will usually last about one year.
Q: The goal of crisis intervention is to change the precipitating event.
Q: Crises are abnormal and need long term therapy to overcome them.
Q: Critical incident debriefing: A. has been used to deal with community disasters. B. does not use the coping strategies involved in crisis intervention. C. has been used to replace crisis intervention. D. all of the above.
Q: The cognitive-behavioral theories have contributed which of the following to crisis intervention? A. Interpretive techniques B. The problem solving model C. The exploratory model D. All of the above E. None of the above
Q: Suicide prevention became widespread in the: A. 1800s. B. 1960s. C. 1990s. D. 1980s.
Q: When would a "runaway" exist in a family? A. When a child turns 17 B. When the family cannot bring a crisis situation back into a homeostatic pattern C. When the calibration of a family system is set by a therapist D. All of the above
Q: Which theoretical approach is particularly useful in dealing with developmental and cultural crises? A. Psychoanalysis B. Darwinism C. Family systems theory D. All of the above E. None of the above
Q: Carl Rogers and his person-centered counseling approach has contributed much in the way of: A. empathy skills. B. reflective skills. C. genuineness skills. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: The idea of growth and optimism comes from which theory? A. Behaviorism B. Psychoanalytic C. Cognitive D. None of the above
Q: The empowerment model of crisis intervention where responsibility and choice are emphasized probably best represents which approach? A. Existential B. Humanistic C. Behavioral D. None of the above
Q: The concept of finite psychic energy comes from which theory? A. Darwin's B. Psychoanalytic C. Existential D. Humanistic E. None of the above
Q: Eric Lindemann studied: A. the reactions of Vietnam veterans. B. the reactions of the relatives of victims in the Coconut Grove fire. C. the reactions of the Iraqi Veterans of 2003. D. the reactions of sexually-abused children.
Q: The crisis-prone person usually: A. has access to their ego to deal with stress. B. has depleted their ego strength and operates defensively. C. engages in problem solving behaviors under stress. D. all of the above.
Q: Caplan believed that all of the following are characteristics of effective coping behavior EXCEPT: A. actively exploring reality issues. B. trusting in oneself. C. freely expressing feelings. D. none of the above.
Q: Which of the following might determine how well someone manages a crisis? A. Material resources B. Personal resources C. Social resources D. All of the above
Q: A person in crisis may be in danger of: A. becoming psychotic. B. committing suicide. C. coming through the crisis at a lower level of functioning. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: A crisis can be an opportunity because: A. the person can grow from the challenge of dealing with the precipitating event. B. the person can seek financial opportunity by winning malpractice lawsuits or workman's compensation. C. the person may learn to use ego defense mechanism. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: Which best describes the trilogy definition of a crisis? A. A person experiences stress, suffers a nervous breakdown, and requires hospitalization B. A precipitating even occurs, subjective distress is experienced, coping fails C. An abnormal state which is caused by personality disorders, psychosis or organicity D. Both A and B E. None of the above
Q: The curvilinear model of anxiety proposes: A. anxiety is always negative and serves no purpose. B. anxiety may be used to increase motivation. C. anxiety should be avoided at all costs. D. none of the above.
Q: An example of effective coping behavior is: A. learning to accept that oneself cannot be trusted in crisis situations. B. learning to master the problem as it comes to you as a whole. C. mastering feelings where possible. D. none of the above.
Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of effective coping behavior according to Caplan? A. Actively exploring reality issues B. Learning to stifle emotions and contain them C. Actively invoking help from others D. All of the above E. None of the above
Q: The cognitive key refers to: A. the precipitating event. B. the coping strategies. C. the meaning given to the precipitating event. D. both A and B. E. none of the above.
Q: The outcome of a person's crisis is determined by his or her: A. material resources. B. personal resources. C. social resources. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: Ego strength refers to: A. how proud and self-centered the person is. B. the amount of energy available to overcome post-traumatic stress disorder. C. the ability to understand the world realistically and act upon it to get one's needs met. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
Q: Discuss how after the O.J. Simpson case, the Supreme Court changed the rules by which scientific evidence information is to be used in courtrooms.
Q: Schneidman describes _____ as "a reconstruction of the motivations, philosophy, psychodynamics, and existential crises of the decedent."
Q: _____ help investigators develop databases and benchmarks for serial crime.
Q: _____ draws upon many areas of forensics.
Q: Much can be learned about the offenders, of course, from their _____.
Q: _____ identification is known to produce specific biases.
Q: The Body Farm is an academic research facility at the University of West Georgia that studies the decomposition of the human body for forensic purposes.
Q: Equivocal death profiling is also referred to as psychological autopsy.
Q: Race and ethnicity are often associated with specific types of violent crimes.
Q: Victims, even in death, are often storybooks about the offender and the circumstances of the crime.
Q: Media impact, management of departmental resources, and unusual complexity of any given case are rare problems associated with serial murder cases.
Q: According to Hickey, which of the following is the best response to reducing the number of serial murders?a. reduce violence in the homeb. reduce the number of appeals filed by serial offendersc. provide appropriate therapy for traumatized childrend. hire more law enforcement to investigate serial murder
Q: In the matter of serial killers, it seems that people are overwhelmingly in favor of _____. a. execution b. long term mental health therapy c. long term prison sentences d. life without possibility of parole
Q: This research effort aims to scientifically standardize the definition of legal terms such as "heinous," "atrocious," "evil," and "depraved." a. the Body Farm b. the Hare Checklist c. the Thesaurus of Evil d. the Depravity Standard
Q: This process occurs when digestive enzymes eat from the body, causing the tissue to liquefy. a. putrefaction b. homeostasis c. retrogestation d. rigor mortis
Q: Which of the following is a false statement regarding the Body Farm in Tennessee? a. There are currently five such facilities operating in the United States. b. Bodies are observed decomposing under controlled conditions. c. Remains are often skeletonized and added to the research collection. d. Approximately 40-50 bodies of inmates who died in prison are donated yearly.
Q: The following are types of forensic evidence inspection and analysis performed in crime labs except _____. a. mental health diagnosis b. glass and soil fragments c. hair, fibers, and paint analysis d. arson analysis including flammable residues and explosives.
Q: Keppel examined the solvability factors involved in serial murder investigations. Which of the following is NOT one of those factors? a. quality of court procedures during the preliminary hearing b. quality of police interviews with eyewitnesses c. quality of scientific analysis of the physical evidence d. quality of investigations at the crime scene
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