Q&A Hero

Counseling

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about the battering of women? A. Only minorities get battered. B. Many battered women are highly capable of self-care and autonomy. C. Batterers are not necessarily mentally ill. D. There are many causes for battering.
Q: Interventions with abused elderly people usually require the services of: A. nurses. B. social workers. C. physicians. D. all of the above.
Q: A battering parent often: A. is very concerned for the child's battered condition. B. places the blame on the child for any injuries. C. is overly cooperative in treatment. D. possesses great communication skills.
Q: Why might an abused child not report the abuse to a helper? A. The child is dependent on the abuser. B. The child blames the abuser for what happened. C. The child feels good about being able to handle the abuse on his or her own. D. All of the above.
Q: Sexual assault occurs most commonly: A. in ghettos. B. by acquaintances or friends. C. by mentally deranged felons. D. none of the above.
Q: Which of the following might be an effective intervention for MST? A. Reduce feelings of guilt B. Reduce feelings of overconfidence C. Increase feelings of her responsibility for the assault D. All of the above
Q: Women in the military may be at risk of being raped because: A. they make unwise decisions. B. they are physically weaker. C. the rapist is often in a position of power. D. all of the above.
Q: Why might women not report being sexually assaulted while serving in the military? A. Fear of revenge B. Fear of scorn C. Fear of negative work repercussions D. All of the above
Q: About how many military personnel reported being victims of sexual assault in 2011? A. 27,000 B. 2,700 C. 270 D. 500,000
Q: What was the purpose of the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office at the DOD? A. To eliminate sexual assaults that take place in the military B. To encourage women to resign rather than prosecute a rapist C. To offer women who report rape financial restitution D. All of the above
Q: Which model is most effective with rape victims? A. Confrontational B. Empowerment C. Repressive therapy D. None of the above
Q: Date rape is: A. common. B. uncommon. C. overreported. D. none of the above.
Q: Which of the following are the three stages of Rape Trauma Syndrome? A. Reintegration, acute phase, reorganization B. Reorganization, acute phase, reintegration C. Immediate crisis reaction, reorganization, reintegration D. None of the above
Q: Which of the following is true about rape? A. It is rare. B. It only happens by stranger. C. It is about power. D. None of the above
Q: Which type of therapy for PTSD is NOT typically used for veterans? A. Gestalt therapy B. Sand tray C. EMDR D. Acceptance and Commitment therapy
Q: Vets centers are often located in: A. huge bureaucratic buildings. B. churches. C. small offices in neighborhoods. D. parks.
Q: Combat trauma, such as PTSD, should be thought of as: A. mental illness. B. a personality disorder. C. an injury. D. all of the above.
Q: Which of the following might be a cause of TBI? A. Observing another soldier get stabbed B. IEDs C. Being deployed multiple times D. None of the above
Q: PTSD in veterans is often related to: A. alcohol misuse. B. increased impulse control. C. desire to be connected with family. D. all of the above.
Q: Which of the following is considered an invisible wound? A. PTSD B. Depression C. TBI D. All of the above
Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of killing? A. Remorse B. Exhilaration C. Concern D. None of the above
Q: Military culture tends to view the use of mental health services as a sign of: A. honor. B. intelligence. C. weakness. D. loyalty.
Q: About how many service members have been deployed to OIF and OEF since 2001? A. 1 million B. 2 million C. 10 million D. 50 million
Q: The term shell shock is associated with which veterans of which war? A. Vietnam B. Korea C. Persian Gulf D. World War II
Q: OEF stands for: A. Operation Enduring Freedom. B. Operation Enemy Fighting. C. Operation Enduring Fighting. D. None of the above.
Q: OIF stands for: A. Operation Intelligence Forensics. B. Operation Iraqi Fighters. C. Operation Iraqi Freedom. D. none of the above.
Q: Clients suffering from PTSD may benefit from: A. EMDR. B. group therapy. C. medication. D. all of the above.
Q: Critical incident debriefing includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. support and assurance. B. discouraging functioning so client may rest. C. empathy and information. D. all of the above.
Q: Which of the following is the correct order of the phases of community disaster? A. Disillusionment, heroic, reconstruction, altruisms B. Heroic, honeymoon, disillusionment, reconstruction C. Deconstruction, heroic, honeymoon, reconstruction D. None of the above
Q: Which of the following is most likely to cause PTSD? A. Divorce B. Serving in combat C. Being fired D. None of the above
Q: Which of the following are symptoms of PTSD? A. Nightmares B. Numbing of experience C. Dissociative flashbacks D. All of the above
Q: Parents who lose a child to death often prefer support groups.
Q: People who are divorcing are at risk for increased alcohol use.
Q: Divorcing people should be encouraged to tell their parents and in-laws the details of the break-up.
Q: Most people will experience grief in the same way.
Q: People who lose someone to death should never learn to adjust to life without them.
Q: Losing one's job has enduring health consequences.
Q: Unemployment rates are on the rise.
Q: Which of the following is NOT considered a task of mourning? A. Accepting the reality of the loss B. Learning to suppress the pain of grief C. Adjusting to an environment in which the deceased is missing D. Withdrawal or energy and reinvestment E. None of the above
Q: Which of the following is the correct order of Kubler-Ross'stages of death and dying? A. Denial, depression, anger, acceptance, bargaining B. Anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance, depression C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance D. Denial, bargaining, depression, anger, acceptance E. None of the above
Q: Children whose parents go through divorce may suffer from: A. loyalty issues. B. blended family issues. C. depression. D. anger. E. all of the above.
Q: About what percentage of marriages end in divorce? A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 66 percent
Q: The overall goal when intervening with someone going through a divorce is: A. to help the client grieve. B. ensuring the better spouse gets the best deal. C. to ensure that in-laws are well aware of the details of the divorce. D. all of the above.
Q: Bereavement is: A. a state involving loss. B. the feelings of sorrow, anger, and guilt that arise when one experiences loss. C. the overt expression of grief. D. none of the above.
Q: Grief refers to: A. a state involving loss. B. the feelings of sorrow when experiencing loss. C. the process of working through a death. D. none of the above.
Q: Cyberbullying may include: A. slapping in the face in front of other students. B. stealing lunch money. C. placing embarrassing photos on Facebook. D. all of the above.
Q: Which need best describes why an adolescent might "act out?" A. Autonomy B. Nurturance C. Independence D. All of the above
Q: Many elderly struggle with issues of: A. integrity vs. despair. B. intimacy vs. isolation. C. generativity vs. stagnation. D. none of the above.
Q: An eating disorder in which a person starves him or herself and refuses to maintain adequate nutrition is called: A. bulimia nervosa. B. anorexia nervosa. C. food abstinence syndrome. D. none of the above.
Q: Which statement is most true about teen pregnancy? A. About 400,000 teenagers give birth in the U.S. per year. B. About 5 million teenagers give birth in the U.S. per year. C. It is rare and not a problem in the U.S. D. None of the above
Q: A major emotional cause of teen runaways is: A. to live with friends B. due to feelings of abandonment by parents C. due to the glamour of the streets D. all of the above
Q: During middle childhood, the major role changes going on for the child deal with: A. bonding. B. stagnation. C. success and failures. D. all of the above.
Q: During which stage of development might a crisis worker teach parents how to deal with power struggles? A. Toddlerhood B. Adolescence C. Maturity D. Both A and B E. None of the above
Q: The empty nest syndrome is part of the crisis of which stage? A. Infancy B. Middle adult C. Childhood D. Toddlerhood E. None of the above
Q: Suicidal people never leave hints that they are thinking of suicide.
Q: Hospitalizing a high risk client is avoided at all costs.
Q: A crisis worker may include family members in a suicide watch.
Q: The suicidal client will feel relieved to openly discuss his feelings.
Q: Suicide is always an insane act.
Q: Suicide is always impulsive.
Q: The World Health Organization estimated that about one million individuals complete a suicidal act each year in the world.
Q: Farberow's work with suicide began with World War II veterans.
Q: Which of the following is NOT a category of the Mental Status Exam? A. Appearance B. Perception C. Behavior D. None of the above
Q: A psychotic decompensation can best be described as: A. a state of increased energy. B. a state of active delusions and hallucinations. C. a state of increased independence. D. none of the above.
Q: Clients who a danger to others may: A. be delusional. B. have impulse control problems. C. feel controlled by outside forces. D. all of the above.
Q: The most common methods of self-mutilative behaviors include all of the following EXCEPT: A. cutting. B. carving. C. hanging. D. biting oneself.
Q: A good strategy for a middle risk client regarding suicide is: A. support comments. B. no suicide contract. C. family suicide watch. D. all of the above.
Q: A client who says "I"m going to kill myself and you can"t stop me" is probably: A. high risk. B. middle risk. C. low risk. D. none of the above.
Q: Typical warning signs of suicide include all of the following EXCEPT: A. giving things away. B. putting things in order. C. vegetative depression. D. increased drug use.
Q: Who is considered one of the founding fathers of modern suicidology? A. Dr. Sigmund Freud B. Dr. Norman Farberow C. Dr. Gerald Caplan D. Dr. Eric Lindemann
Q: At the end of a crisis intervention interview, the counselor should: A. develop a follow-up plan. B. ensure commitment from the client. C. have the client sign a no suicide contract when necessary. D. all of the above.
Q: Which of the following is an example of a 12-step group? A. Al-Anon B. Scared Straight C. Phoenix house D. All of the above
Q: The most important way to begin the coping phase of crisis intervention is: A. making sure the client reads books. B. encouraging the client to develop new coping ideas. C. giving solid advice. D. none of the above.
Q: When a client is presented with choices and is encouraged to take back power, the counselor is providing a/an: A. educational statement. B. empowerment statement. C. support statement. D. reframe.
Q: Defining a situation in a different way than the client is defining it is called: A. educational statement. B. empowerment statement. C. support statement. D. reframe.
Q: When a counselor tells a client that his or her feelings are normal and suggests that others would feel the same way under the same conditions, he is giving a/an: A. educational statement. B. empowerment statement. C. support/validation statement. D. reframe.
Q: Which basic attending skill is probably the most powerful tool in creating an empathic environment? A. Clarifying B. Reflection C. Summarization D. Open-ended questions
Q: Paraphrasing is: A. a way to help clients feel their emotions. B. a clarifying technique. C. a way to give advice. D. all of the above.
Q: Which is considered the most effective way to allow clients to express their real selves without categories imposed on them by the interviewer? A. Close-ended questions B. Interpretations C. Open-ended questions D. None of the above
Q: What is the purpose of basic attending skills? A. To find the precipitating event B. To develop rapport C. To provide coping skills D. None of the above
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