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Q:
Reporting on shared media can involve much data. Which one of the following metrics would be considered better than the others?
a. page visits
b. downloads
c. message retention
d. impressions made
Q:
Which one of the following represents the recommended presentation approach for campaign reporting?
a. Reports should be selectively developed according to the audience.
b. Reports should be consistent across audiences.
c. Reports should avoid high-level technical details.
d. Reports should include written recommendations regarding future campaigns.
Q:
What should be the center of reporting on campaign results?
a. organizational values
b. strategies
c. objectives
d. audience behaviors
Q:
Determining what motivated target audience members to react favorably to a radio advertisement, for example, the practitioner would likely choose which one of the following?
a. qualitative analysis
b. quantitative analysis
c. online surveys
d. broadcast ratings
Q:
One of the initial tasks of preparing a campaign report is which one of the following?
a. selecting what information to report
b. summarizing data in understandable ways
c. addressing on unexpected outcomes
d. determining who will receive the report
Q:
The takeaway information of a report should be positioned where in the report?
a. just ahead of the data analysis section of the report
b. in the final summary of the report
c. in an appendix to the report
d. in the early part of the report
Q:
The format for a campaign report should be done according to which of the following?
a. the campaign teams perspectives regarding objectives, strategies and outcomes
b. a format that addresses the original plan of the campaign
c. a summary beginning with tactics and methods, and finishing with objectives and goals
d. the background and needs of the report readers
Q:
With regard to the use of data from paid media, particularly with digital media, what is a common risk in reporting?
a. presenting data that is not fully understood by the reader
b. presenting too little data
c. presenting too much data
d. presenting data that is not timely
Q:
Why does the use of paid media allow it to draw heavier scrutiny regarding its effectiveness?
a. Paid media reaches larger audiences.
b. Paid media allows greater control of message and placement.
c. Paid media reaches more highly targeted audiences.
d. Paid media is generally more credible than social media.
Q:
The concept of weighted volume is used in for which one of the following?
a. setting benchmark standards for data
b. adjusting for differences during data comparisons
c. setting a threshold for campaign effectiveness
d. establishing which media platform was most influential during a campaign
Q:
Which one of the following is NOT cited as an assessable measure of digital audience outreach?
a. behavior change
b. reach and impressions
c. likes and shares
d. message destination
Q:
The evaluation metric that would address audience engagement would be in which one of the following?
a. impressions
b. behavior change
c. likes and shares
d. reach
Q:
Measuring reach and impressions requires which one of the following?
a. a substantial sample size
b. historical context
c. high target audience relevance
d. a control group
Q:
In post-campaign evaluation operations, the first activities would occur with whom?
a. the organization leadership
b. the communications department
c. individual staffers
d. the target audience
Q:
The mandate of the reporting phase of a campaign is to do which one of the following?
a. review the lessons learned from the campaign
b. review which strategies were most successful
c. present all the data related to the campaign
d. explain whether campaign objectives have been achieved
Q:
According to the text, what is it in part that makes campaigns difficult to evaluate?
a. The components of a campaign components do not operate in isolation.
b. Campaigns are often run over long periods of time.
c. Campaigns involve a range of different people and their respective capabilities.
d. Campaign outcomes are often not well documented.
Q:
Media evaluation should be done in relation to which one of the following?
a. campaign goals
b. campaign objectives
c. campaign strategies
d. campaign tactics
Q:
Analysis measurement of things such as message prominence and tone can be subject to which one of the following difficulties?
a. observer bias
b. sample size
c. media reporting
d. message complexity
Q:
In media evaluation, benchmarks are used for what purpose?
a. consolidation of data
b. summarizing of data
c. comparison of data
d. explanation of data
Q:
What is one stated recommended way that PR practitioners can be effective at stories and pitches to reporters?
a. reading and research on specific reporters and media outlets
b. gaining familiarity with a publications editorial policies
c. building a network of contacts in the journalistic field
d. developing a topic and story list for pitches
Q:
Chapter 10: Reporting and Evaluation
Q:
How can the PR practitioner gain insight into the perspectives of the publics after a campaigns conclusion?
a. listen to all audiences of the campaign
b. review feedback from the staff who ran the campaign
c. review campaign outcome data soon after the close of the campaign
d. review media coverage of the campaign
Q:
Which one of the following questions would be the primary concern in reviewing a campaign?
a. Did the campaign bring about the proposed action or change?
b. Did the campaign build meaningful media relations?
c. Did audiences seem to relate to the campaign?
d. Did the campaign gain media coverage?
Q:
According to Watson and Noble, what is the basis from which a campaigns evaluative planning decisions can be made?
a. the campaigns selected strategies
b. the campaigns impact on target audiences
c. the campaigns intended behavioral effects
d. the campaigns overall goals
Q:
What does the primary evaluative task for a campaign require?
a. reviewing the planned and unplanned steps taken during the campaign
b. documenting strategic and tactical steps undertaken throughout the campaign
c. understanding campaign results using quantitative and qualitative outcome data
d. reporting campaign outcomes to organizational leaders
Q:
The campaign evaluation process requires attention be paid to which one of the following?
a. major decisions
b. the small details
c. the capabilities of the campaign team
d. major decisions and small details
Q:
In the evaluative phase of a campaign, if reporters showed little interest in a campaign, it might be attributed to which one of the following issues?
a. an objective issue
b. a strategic issue
c. a tactical issue
d. an implementation issue
Q:
Which one of the following is a stated recommendation for PR practitioners who work with others outside their field?
a. Use caution when commenting on the contributions of PR team members.
b. Do not discuss personal opinions of specific project elements.
c. Avoid using PR industry-specific jargon with others.
d. Do not comment on organizational values that are not included as part of the project.
Q:
Which one of the following concepts summarizes an essential mandate for the PR practitioner working with non-PR people?
a. Clients should be educated in PR practices.
b. Clients should be regarded as experts in their field.
c. PR practitioners should learn to overcome client objections.
d. PR practitioners are responsible for effective client communication.
Q:
What story pitches are considered the most valuable by journalists and editors?
a. those that relate to large and younger audiences
b. those that have one or more unusual personalities as central part of the story
c. those that indicate they are most timely
d. those that are framed for a media outlets audience or journalists beat
Q:
What is the recommended way a PR practitioner be a source of ideas for stories and pitches?
a. by building contacts in the professional field
b. by knowing journalists and editors
c. through knowing the organization
d. through contributions from team members
Q:
Modern PR work resembles which one of the following?
a. assembly line work
b. specialist work
c. freelance work
d. contract work
Q:
What primarily determines the design of a PR campaign team?
a. tasks and team member skills
b. tasks and project costs
c. team member skills and objectives
d. tactics and costs
Q:
Creating a functional timeline for a project task will require which one of the following?
a. knowledge of specific services and deadlines of the project
b. knowledge of the steps and costs of specific services
d. knowledge of the steps and time needed to do tasks
d. knowledge of both hard and soft deadlines for tasks
Q:
What is recommend to ensure that project timelines are met?
a. be prepared to add staffing to meet deadlines
b. add padding to timelines
c. set a flexible budget for the project
d. alert clients about possible timeline defaults in the proposal stage of a project
Q:
What is the purpose of a Gantt chart?
a. to organize multiple deadlines
b. to show project expenses
c. to track staff hours
d. to display project elements
Q:
In a PR campaign, which job title below is responsible for conveying a clear project vision to the campaign team?
a. organizational leadership
b. PR supervisor
c. project manager
d. production supervisor
Q:
What two variables must successful PR practitioners keep in balance as they support team members who work on project tasks?
a. project objectives and budget
b. cost and staff size
c. budget and organizational values
d. efficiency and creativity
Q:
How can the practitioner benefit from instances when a campaign does not proceed as planned?
Q:
Chapter 9: Implementation
Q:
The text states that successful campaign implementation includes which one of the following?
a. organizational values
b. relevance
c. timeliness
d. expectations
Q:
Which one of the following is NOT identified as necessary to the implementation phase?
a. project budgets
b. organizational values
c. generating timelines
d. team communication
Q:
In the implementation phase, estimating costs is made easier how?
a. using a third party to review quotes
b. employing budgetary planning systems
c. creating tiered budgets for projects
d. working closely with vendors
Q:
In which budget category would you find the cost of editing software?
a. media costs
b. administration
c. infrastructure
d. materials
Q:
Which one of the following is an example of a soft budget cost?
a. in-house video production
b. event costs
c. vendor payments
d. infrastructure expansion
Q:
According to the text, in PR agency work, when a clients project needs more time per month than expected, which one of the following is likely to happen?
a. The organization will take responsibility for tasks that are not covered by the PR agency.
b. The project timeline is adjusted to allow for the additional work.
c. Additional personnel is brought in to keep meet deadlines.
d. An additional contract with the client will be created.
Q:
Discuss the role of the PR practitioners attitude or personal outlook with regard to persistence and perseverance and pitching stories.
Q:
Editing and editing software are both associated with creative work. State the budget categories in which they would be placed and why.
Q:
Describe the difference between a hard and soft budget costs.
Q:
Explain why it is important to track the time it takes to accomplish tasks in a project.
Q:
Why would it be important for the PR practitioner to know how long it should take to do routine things such as generating a news release?
Q:
Explain how project timelines might be complicated when tasks involve providers outside the PR agency.
Q:
Explain why it is important for PR practitioners to educate those outside the PR team on strategic communications processes.
Q:
Explain how timing plays a critical role in the success of a PR practitioner.
Q:
Describe what might be the better source that PR practitioners can rely upon for increasing self-awareness of their capabilities and weaknesses, and why.
Q:
The key to effective media relations is in knowledge of journalists and their work.
Q:
Generating enthusiasm for a project may require practitioners to step out of their comfort zone, which may involve responding to the informational and emotional needs of their team members.
Q:
Practitioners should not be considered an expert at every task or tactic.
Q:
PR practitioners that are adept in overcoming obstacles tend to be the best negotiators.
Q:
Most media pitches find success because they are offered at times reporters need them.
Q:
The most successful plans are executed as written.
Q:
When unexpected circumstances arise during a campaign it is important that practitioners adjust to the circumstances and recalibrate strategies and tactics.
Q:
Contingency theory is used to explain agency budget priorities.
Q:
Setting up project timelines will often involve an analysis of tasks and times.
Q:
Practitioners can help ensure success in working with journalists by being sensitive to their deadlines.
Q:
What is one recommended way PR practitioners can sustain resilience and the ability to bounce back from adversity when pitching media?
a. Practitioners should research media for past interest in the topic or story being pitched.
b. Practitioners must feel confident in their knowledge of a problem and those are pitching.
c. Practitioners should be part of a team of specialists who can address the topic from many viewpoints.
d. Practitioners need to know they have sufficient organizational support for the ideas they are pitching.
Q:
When unexpected circumstances arise during a campaign, what is the recommend course of action to follow?
a. stay the course regarding the selected objectives and tactics
b. adapt to the changing conditions by revising plans and actions
c. slow the pace of the project until the unexpected circumstances resolve themselves
d. place a hold on the project until the unexpected circumstances resolve themselves
Q:
A way to understand change in the organizational environment is as follows: attempts to respond to external change are seen as a balance between advocacy and accommodation. This is called ______.
a. contingency theory
b. accommodation theory
c. adaptive theory
d. systems theory
Q:
The public relations function will address the possibility of unaccounted for outcomes by doing which one of the following?
a. planning based on past performance
b. planning based on resource availability
c. planning based on hypothetical results
d. planning based on organizational values
Q:
The best PR campaign plans are thought of and described as which one of the following?
a. directional
b. a linear path
c. dynamic
d. a map
Q:
The implementation phase of a campaign marks the end of the research and planning stage.
Q:
Organizational leaders prefer to know cost estimates and decisions as they become available.
Q:
Infrastructure costs will represent costs associated with physical property such as equipment and facilities as well as some services.
Q:
While agencies tend to have fixed personnel costs, organizations have flexibility in assigning team members to projects as needed.
Q:
PR team members can expect to be assigned to projects according to their available time.
Q:
In the realm of media relations, describe an instance in in which a reporter might accept information from a PR practitioner and why he or she would accept that information.
Q:
Describe some of the ways a PR practitioner can create information subsidies.
Q:
Explain how an organizations message might be presented differently to a target audience when it appears in social media versus earned media.
Q:
What is one recommended source PR practitioners can use for increasing self-awareness of their capabilities and weaknesses?
a. senior colleagues
b. professional development courses
c. trade and industry journals
d. participation at industry conferences
Q:
Under what particular conditions might an organization need to rely on paid media versus some other form of media?