Q&A Hero

Q: One of the key steps of the stakeholder analysis that experts suggest companies should adopt is: A. Stakeholder engagement B. Stakeholder introduction C. Stakeholder analysis D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the strategy of NGOs? A. NGOs can adopt a confrontational strategy only B. NGOs always cooperate with the multinationals they are working with C. NGOs can influence companies indirectly D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Special interest groups, activist groups, social movement organizations, and charities are all examples of _________. A. Non-governmental organizations B. Governmental organizations C. Protest groups D. Quasi-governmental organizations E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT a form of media analysis? A. Salience and sentiment analysis B. Theme and contradiction analysis C. Problem and solution analysis D. Cause and effect analysis E. All of the above are examples of media analysis

Q: When a company scans media to determine whether it is being portrayed in a positive, neutral or negative way, it is conducting which form of media analysis? A. Salience B. Theme and contradiction C. Problem and solution D. Contradiction analysis E. Sentiment analysis

Q: When a company scans the media to compare media portrayal with that the company is saying itself, it is conducting A. First-person analysis B. Salience analysis C. Contradiction analysis D. Sentiment analysis E. Theme analysis

Q: Which of the following is NOT a corporate governance mechanism? A. Ownership concentration B. Executive Compensation C. Dividend D. Board of directors E. All of the above

Q: Which of the following are advantages of having a large board of directors? A. Necessary to understand the industry the company is operating to have the ability to make decisions of strategic importance B. Greater external linkages C. Less moral hazard D. Less adverse selection E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT a critical aspect of the board of directors? A. Board independence B. Expertise C. Size D. Seniority E. All of the above

Q: A critical issue in board composition is: A. The presence (or absence) of diversity B. Board independence C. Size D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the Board of Directors? A. They are not a primary mechanism to monitor and control the agency problem B. They have a duty of loyalty to their shareholders C. They put their own interests ahead of the shareholders D. They cannot control managers E. None of the above

Q: Corporate governance refers to the: A. Conflict between managers and shareholders B. System that controls and directs top managements actions only C. System that controls and directs companies and top managements actions D. Political alliance between corporations and the government E. None of the above

Q: The basic premise of agency theory is that A. Shareholders and managers have similar interests that need to be managed B. Managers always work in the interest of shareholders C. Shareholders cannot control top managers D. There is no conflict between shareholders and managers E. The interests of shareholders may not necessarily coincide with the interests of top managers

Q: Moral hazard refers to A. The legal entity that serves as a nexus for a set of contract among disparate individuals B. Adverse selection C. Misrepresentation by the CEO of his/her ability to do the work he/she is being paid for D. One of the problems top managers face when they deal with shareholders E. The ability of top managers to misuse company resources for their own interests

Q: Adverse selection is: A. The misrepresentation by the CEO of his/her ability to do the work that he/she is being paid for. B. A problem whereby the top management does not put in the right effort C. A problem whereby the top management misuses the company resources for their own interests D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Large shareholders are: A. Individual shareholders owning more than a 20% equity stake in a firm B. Individual shareholders owning more than a 50% equity stake in a firm C. Typically grouped as blockholders and institutional shareholders. D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding individual shareholders? A. They include regular persons buying and selling shares of any company B. Such transactions are usually done through a stockbroker C. The transactions are typically held in brokerage accounts D. They are typically grouped as blockholders and institutional shareholders E. None of the above

Q: According to Kohlberg's (1969) the stage of moral development where a person chooses the action that satisfies personal gains the most, is the A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Fourth stage E. Fifth stage

Q: According to Kohlbergs theory, the stage where an individual determines right or wrong based on the impact of the consequences of actions on significant others, is the A. First stage of moral development B. Second stage of moral development C. Third stage of moral development D. Fourth stage of moral development E. None of the above

Q: The obedience to authority/fear of punishment stage whereby the person defines right or wrong based on the obedience to rules from those in power represent which stage of Kohlberg's moral development? A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Fourth stage E. Fifth stage

Q: What is moral disengagement? Briefly discuss each of the 8 elements of moral disengagement.

Q: You have been asked to decide whether you should close a plant or not. Discuss how you would apply utilitarian ethics to make the decision. How would use of Kantian ethics help you make the decision?

Q: Compare and contrast idealism with relativism.

Q: Discuss Kohlberg's six stages of moral reasoning. How can companies use Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning to help its employees make more ethical decisions?

Q: What is moral awareness? Discuss briefly the six basic elements of moral awareness.

Q: Under this principle,the torturing of terrorists is acceptable, as they have brough such actions to themselves is referred to as: A. Attribution of blame B. Dehumanization C. Distortion of Consequences D. Diffusion of responsibility E. None of the above

Q: The use of morally neutral language to make something seem less immoral refers to: A. Euphemistic Labeling B. Adventageous comparision C. Moral Justification D. Displacement of Responsibility E. None of the above

Q: When tabacco executive deny the link between smoking and cancer despite decades of evidence suggesting a link, this is called: A. Moral Justification B. Moral Disengagement C. Displacement of Responsibility D. Attribution of Responsibility E. None of the above

Q: Moral intensity is dependent on how many different elements? A. Five B. One C. Six D. Three E. Eight

Q: Incrementalism refers to: A. Justifying unethical behaviors as orders from their manager B. Employee has tendoncy of imitating or accepting the values of others C. Turning a blind eye to unethical behavior because if is beneficial to them D. Employees that engage in minor unethical infractions that eventually leads to major ethical infractions E. None of the above

Q: When employees justify unethical behavior as orders that came from their managers, they are refering to? A. Obedience to authority B. Conscious Biases C. Displacement of Responsibility D. Advantageous comparison E. Moral indecision

Q: When a company executive may unconsciously prefer a job applicant who also holds an MBA from the same school that the executive went to, they are demonstrating? A. Motivated blindness B. Moral disengagement C. In-group favoritism D. Unconscious Biases E. None of the above

Q: refers to the cognitive framework individuals prefer to use in moral decision making A. Ethical predispositions B. Moral awareness C. Moral Judgment D. Unethical behavior E. None of the above

Q: refers to the ability of individuals to access and interpret the moral context of information and stimuli they are presented with A. Moral awareness B. Moral attentiveness C. Moral disengagement D. Ethical awareness E. None of the above

Q: When a manager may turn overlooks a salesperson filing a fraudulent expense claim because the salesperson is one of the best performers in the company, he or she is engaging in which of the following? A. Motivated blindness B. Unconscious Biases C. Implicit prejudice D. Conscious Biases E. None of the above

Q: Decision-making that can be unconsciously affected because the decision maker may benefit from the chosen decision is A. Motivated blindness B. Unconscious Biases C. Conflict of interest D. Conscious Biases E. None of the above

Q: According to Banaji et al. (2003), in-group favoritism occurs because people tend to favor those individuals who share similar A. School B. Social class C. Religion D. None of the above E. All of the above

Q: When people tend to make associations between employee characteristics and organizational outcomes that may not be accurate, this is called A. Attribution of blame B. Implicit prejudice C. Unconscious biases D. Motivated blindness E. Attribution of blame

Q: This occur when the "most well-meaning person unwittingly allows unconscious thoughts and feelings to influence seemingly objective decisions" A. Conscious biases B. Motivated blindness C. Unconscious blindness D. Unconscious biases E. Attribution of blame

Q: Utilize the knowledge you have gained to respond to the following essay questions. Your answers should state your position and use logical arguments and content from this and other chapters in the textbook to support it. Discuss the concept of color bias. Have you ever experienced this, or seen it happen?

Q: Utilize the knowledge you have gained to respond to the following essay questions. Your answers should state your position and use logical arguments and content from this and other chapters in the textbook to support it. Which of the four affirmative action postures do you think is most appropriate today? Why?

Q: Utilize the knowledge you have gained to respond to the following essay questions. Your answers should state your position and use logical arguments and content from this and other chapters in the textbook to support it. Describe the two types of commonly recognized sexual harassment.

Q: Utilize the knowledge you have gained to respond to the following essay questions. Your answers should state your position and use logical arguments and content from this and other chapters in the textbook to support it. What are the consequences of the rise in older workers in the workplace?

Q: Utilize the knowledge you have gained to respond to the following essay questions. Your answers should state your position and use logical arguments and content from this and other chapters in the textbook to support it. Evaluate the reasons for the worldwide shift in pay in favor of women.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Briefly explain how reverse discrimination evolves from affirmative action.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Some companies are now specifically including white males in their diversity programs. Evaluate the wisdom and propriety of this idea.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Summarize the concept of African American in Corporate America.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Why do you suppose retaliation claims to the EEOC are at their highest?

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Men and women provide very different reasons why the glass ceiling exists. Which seems more likely to you?

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. What impact did the Lily Ledbetter Act have on employee testing?

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Summarize the history leading up to the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Describe the main differences between disparate treatment and disparate impact.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Define the terms "reasonable accommodation," "undue hardship," and "essential functions" as they relate to the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. Operating against the continuing trends emphasizing civil rights is a growing sentiment against affirmative action. Explain this statement.

Q: Provide a short answer to each of these questions. Be sure to fully explain your answer. The diversity chair for the Society of Human Resource Management (SHRM) stated, "Race was the sacrificial lamb to launch diversity and make it palatable to corporate America." What does she mean?

Q: The Workplace Religious Freedom Act requires which of the following except A.employers to do more to accommodate religious beliefs. B.the definition of accommodation to be undue hardship. C.employers to make accommodation for weight. D.minimum cost to the employer.

Q: Preferential treatment refers to all of the following except A.the undergird of affirmative action. B.its rational is the principles of compensatory justice. C.compensation or reparation for an injustice. D.reverse discrimination.

Q: The standard of judicial rule that requires that the policy under review must meet a compelling government interest and must be narrowly tailored to meet the policy objectives is called A.strict interpretation. B.strict scrutiny. C.strict construction. D.strict standard.

Q: The concept that preferential treatment for minorities and women leads to harms to other groups is called A.compensatory justice. B.reverse discrimination. C."what goes around comes around." D.legalized discrimination.

Q: The principle that reparation is owed to the person or people harmed by an injustice is A.distributive justice. B.procedural justice. C.contributive justice. D.compensatory justice.

Q: Preferential treatment A.only occurs in hard quota affirmative action. B.is not given to anyone other than minorities and women. C.is based on the principle of compensatory justice. D.is the ideal method of selecting employees.

Q: The affirmative action posture that specifies numbers or proportions of minority group members that must be hired is called A.passive nondiscrimination. B.pure affirmative action. C.affirmative action with preferential hiring. D.hard quotas.

Q: The affirmative action posture that enlarges the pool of applicants and systematically favors minorities and women in actual decisions is called A.passive nondiscrimination. B.pure affirmative action. C.affirmative action with preferential hiring. D.hard quotas.

Q: The affirmative action posture that involves a concerted effort to enlarge the pool of applicants so that no one is excluded because of past or present discrimination is called A.passive nondiscrimination. B.pure affirmative action. C.affirmative action with preferential hiring. D.hard quotas.

Q: The affirmative action posture that involves a willingness to treat races and sexes alike is called A.passive nondiscrimination. B.pure affirmative action. C.affirmative action with preferential hiring. D.hard quotas.

Q: Taking positive steps to hire and promote people from groups previously discriminated against is called A.preferential hiring and firing policies. B.affirmative action. C.restitution action. D.retributive justice.

Q: Religious discrimination is becoming more common in the United States in large part because A.Christianity seeks to be the dominant religion. B.the separation of church and state has eroded. C.religion and business don't mix. D.changing immigration patterns are bringing more people with different religions to this country.

Q: Sexual harassment A.is a worldwide problem. B.affects men and women in equal numbers. C.is relatively easy to prove in courts. D.is clearly defined in the law.

Q: The idea that workers doing different jobs should receive the same pay if those jobs have equal inherent worth is called A.pay equity. B.comparable worth. C.equal pay for equal work. D.equitable compensation.

Q: The Lily Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 A.statue of limitations is 180 days B.stipulates that the clock reset each time a paycheck is issued. C.requires that you be aware of the discrimination promptly. D.sets discriminatory pay.

Q: The Equal Pay Act of 1963 A.applies to pay differences based on seniority. B.determines wages on the basis of quantities produced. C.prohibits discrimination between men and women on the basis of sex in payment of wages. D.applies to pay differences on the basis of merit.

Q: Which of the following is not a major sex discrimination issue for women today? A.admission to colleges and universities B.moving into professional and managerial positions C.eliminating sexual harassment D.achieving equal pay

Q: Many think of Asian Americans' quiet achievements as A.evidence of their superior intelligence. B.unfair because they have been given preferential treatment. C.a temporary situation that will change with education reform. D.passivity.

Q: Asian Americans A.are the smallest minority group in the United States. B.have escaped the harsh treatment of discrimination. C.have the lowest academic achievement record of any minority group in the United States. D.have a problem unique to U.S. minority groups -- a stereotype that may be too positive.

Q: The largest minority in the United States is now A.African Americans. B.Native Americans. C.Euro Americans. D.Hispanics.

Q: Hispanics are the only major minority group to be classified by their A.geographic origin. B.culture. C.language. D.physical features.

Q: The general rule used to prove discrimination under the disparate impact concept is called the A.four-fifths rule. B.essential equality rule. C.equal results rule. D.evil intent rule.

Q: The concept of disparate impact is significant in employment law because it A.created the four-fifths rule. B.negates many of the earlier antidiscrimination laws. C.runs counter to many traditional employment practices. D.is the first common law regarding job discrimination.

Q: The form of discrimination in which fewer minorities are included in the outcome of a practice than would be expected by their numerical proportion is called A.disparate treatment. B.disparate impact. C.Title VII discrimination. D.stereotype discrimination.

Q: The form of discrimination in which people are treated differently because of their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin is called A.disparate treatment. B.disparate impact. C.Title VII discrimination. D.stereotype discrimination.