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Home » Business Ethics » Page 76

Business Ethics

Q: In the marketing mix, the merchandise or services offered by the company that meet the requirements of the customers is A. Place B. Product C. Promotion D. Price E. None of the above

Q: What is whistle-blowing?What are the disadvantages of whistle-blowing?

Q: What is sexual harassment? Discuss the two main types. What can companies do to eliminate sexual harassmnent?

Q: What is employment-at-will? How does it differ compared to just-cause dismissal approach?

Q: What is affirmative action? What are some of the benefits of diversity in an organization?

Q: What is the first and most important step in developing an ethical organization? Briefly discuss the role of recruitment and selection in the process.

Q: Which of the following represent justifiable reasons for just-in-case dismissal? A. Habitual neglect of duty B. Incompetence C. Willful disobedience D. Insubordination E. All of the above

Q: The two primary groups of individuals discriminated against in the U.S. are based on gender and ________? A. Disability B. Race C. Religion D. Sexual orientation E. Age

Q: Which of the following demonstrate hostile work environments? A. Sexual jokes in the workplace B. Derogatory name calling where the victim is labeled with a sexual nickname C. Inappropriate touching D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is true about whistle-blowing A. Prevents against retaliation for employees B. The most popular method is a hotline C. Companies can fire employees for whistle-blowing D. Both a. and b. E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following characteristics can employers not discriminate against? A. Age B. Gender C. Religion D. Disability E. All of the above

Q: When sex-related behaviors such as sexual jokes makes women feel uncomfortable and abused at work, which form of sexual harassment is occuring? A. Affirmative B. Quid pro quo C. Reasonable person D. Derogatory name calling E. Hostile/poisoned environment

Q: ________ refers to the efforts by a multinational to impart new skills and capabilities in employees. A. Training B. Whistle-blowing C. Quid pro quo D. Recruitment E. Selection

Q: Which of the following is the HRM recruitment and selection process responsible for? A. Hiring only those employees who have higher likelihood of behaving ethically B. Ensuring diversity and that affirmative actions are met C. Both a. and b. D. Obstruction of justice E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following are steps implemented by multinationals to reduce the incidence of sexual harassment? A. Determining the extent to which the problem currently exists B. Employee training and education C. Having the right sexual harassment officer D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: __________ refers to the activities involved when current or former employees disclose illegal, immoral, or illegitimate organization activities to parties that they believe may be able to stop it A. Whistle-blowing B. Quid pro quo C. Black mailing D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following has NOT been shown by studies on sexual harassment? A. It tends to negatively affect job satisfaction B. It tends to negatively affect organizational commitment C. The more sexually harassed employees feel, the more likely they were to look for other jobs D. Sexual harassment increases productivity in the workplace E. All of the above

Q: Quid pro quo sexual harassment is when: A. Sexual jokes are told in the workplace B. The victim is labeled with a sexual nickname, rubbing of buttocks or breasts and other forms of more subtle harassment. C. A person makes explicit requests for sexual favors in exchange for a workplace benefit such as a raise or a promotion D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Sexual harassment is defined as Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when: A. Submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individuals employment B. Submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual C. Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individuals work performance D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: In India, affirmative action programs target: A. People of the highest caste B. Racial minorities C. People with disabilities D. People of minority religions E. The lowest caste, namely untouchables

Q: In Canada, affirmative action programs target which of the following groups? A. Women B. Racial minorities C. Aboriginal groups D. Both a. and b. E. All of the above

Q: Preferential treatment plans: A. Cause multinationals to adhere to strict quotas and hire on the basis of race, ethnicity or caste B. Can be seen implemented with the recent legislation passed in India C. Lead multinationals to proactively hire and promote minorities and women without focus on rigid quotas D. Both a. and b. E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following are criticisms of affirmative action? A. Some see it as violating the principle of equality B. White males tend to be discriminated against C. Both a. and b. D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Affirmative action: A. Is implemented using various Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures B. Prevents the diversity of high level employees C. Has caused the glass ceilings effect and other barriers that keep minorities and women in lower paid and less prestigious jobs D. Both b. and c. E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the research done by Herring on diversity? A. Diversity results in lower profit B. Gender diversity is associated with decreased sales revenue C. Gender diversity is associated with a decrease in customers D. All of the above E. Greater racial diversity increases sales revenue and creates more customers

Q: Proponents of diversity argue that diversity A. Can be harmful to the organization B. Enriches the workplace C. Hampers the creativity of problem solving D. Based on the premise that the employee can be terminated immediately and provided severance or be allowed to continue to work for the employer until alternate employment is found E. Results in unfairness

Q: Which of the following is NOT a justifiable reason to terminate an employee under the just-cause dismissal approach? A. Habitual neglect of duty B. Incompetence C. Willful disobedience D. Terminate its employee for no reason at all E. All of the above

Q: The just-cause dismissal approach states that employers can: A. Only terminate an employee for legitimate reasons B. Terminate its employee for a good reason C. Terminate its employee for a bad reason D. Can terminate its employees for any reason E. None of the above

Q: Proponents of employment-at-will justify its use for which of the following reasons? A. Employees can quit their jobs for any or no reason and do not have to give notice to their employers B. Companies have the proprietary rights to be able to employ and fire whomever they want C. Both a. and b. D. Gender E. Race

Q: Employment at will means that: A. An employer may not terminate its employee for no reason at all B. An employer can fire an employee based on race, religion, age, etc. C. An employer may terminate its employee for a bad reason D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is true concerning the U.S. selection process? A. Discrimination is not an issue B. Legal considerations do not affect the selection process C. Employers need to ensure that they do not discriminate against job candidates based on race, color, religion, gender, age, etc. D. Is similar to recruitment E. None of the above

Q: Recruitment is: A. Concerned with attracting people to apply for jobs B. The process by which a company chooses a person to fill a vacant position C. The process by which a company selects the best candidate D. Only A and B E. A, B and C

Q: Which of the following is true regarding recruitment? A. The preference for open forms of recruitment is shared worldwide B. For many of the collectivist societies such as Japan and South Korea referrals from friends or family are not considered C. Collectivistic societies place heavy emphasis on the family and friends D. Individualist societies prefer to hire family or friends E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is a method of recruiting? A. Applications and advertisements in newspapers or on the Internet B. Internal Job postings C. Recommendations from current employees D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: One of the key factors to developing an ethical organization is by: A. Selecting employees without regard to ethics B. Selecting employees that display high ethics C. Strictly disciplining employees for unethical behavior D. Maintaining an experienced management group E. None of the above

Q: Discuss the steps of stakeholder management. Give examples for each step.

Q: Discuss the three important stakeholder attributes. Give one example for each.

Q: Discuss the different combinations of stakeholder attributes. Which stakeholder need the most attention? Be specific.

Q: Compare and contrast primary and secondary stakeholders.

Q: What are stakeholders? Give two examples of primary and secondary stakeholders.

Q: Which of the following quadrants in the power and urgency matrix needs the least attention? A. The quadrant representing stakeholders with low power and low urgency B. The quadrant representing stakeholders with high power and low urgency C. The quadrant representing stakeholders with low power and high urgency D. The quadrant representing stakeholders with high power and high urgency E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following describes the influence any stakeholder can have on a company's operations? A. Salience B. Urgency C. Legitimacy D. Coerciveness E. Marketability

Q: Which of the following are forms of power? A. Coercive B. Utilitarian C. Normative D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT a type of latent stakeholder? A. Dormant B. Discretionary C. Demanding D. All of the above are latent stakeholders E. None of the above are latent stakeholders

Q: The degree to whicha company needs to respond to stakeholder needs refers to: A. Power B. Legitimacy C. Urgency D. Stakehlder management E. None of the above

Q: Any group or individual that can affect or is affected by the achievement of an organizations objectives is best described as a(n): A. Management group B. Stakeholder C. Special interest group D. Key employee E. An entity

Q: Legitimacy is: A. A key stakeholder attribute B. A secondary stakeholder attribute C. Not a stakeholder attribute D. The ability of a stakeholder to exert pressures to force a company to make changes to accommodate such pressure E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following are NOT forms of power? A. Coercive B. Utilitarian C. Normative D. Authoritarian E. Legitimate

Q: How many steps are there in the stakeholder management process? A. Three B. Five C. Seven D. Nine E. One

Q: Which of the following is the definition of dependent shareholders? A. Stakeholders that are both powerful and legitimate B. Those stakeholders that possess power but have no legitimate claims or urgency C. Those stakeholders that have urgency and legitimacy D. Stakeholders that have power and urgency but no legitimacy E. Stakeholders with legitimacy

Q: Which of the following is the most effective way to monitor stakeholders? A. Regular meetings with critical stakeholders B. An annual meeting with critical stakeholders C. Weekly email correspondence D. Weekly meetings with all stakeholders E. None of the above

Q: The final step in the stakeholder management process is A. To evaluate the entire process B. To monitor stakeholders C. Stakeholder Engagement D. Stakeholder Identification E. Stakeholder prioritization

Q: Which of the following definitions refers to stakeholder engagement? A. The deliberate and purposeful process a company has devised to work with its stakeholders B. The degree to which a company needs to respond to stakeholder needs C. The use of symbolic and other resources to force a company to accommodate stakeholder needs D. The deliberate attempt of a company to actively seek its stakeholders inputs to better deal with their needs and also improve their operations. E. The use of force to work with stakeholders

Q: Which of the following quadrants in the power and urgency matrix needs the most attention? A. The quadrant representing stakeholders with low power and low urgency B. The quadrant representing stakeholders with high power and low urgency C. The quadrant representing stakeholders with low power and high urgency D. The quadrant representing stakeholders with high power and high urgency E. None of the above

Q: The power and urgency matrix can be used: A. To evaluate stakeholder management B. Identify stakeholders C. Differentiate between primary and secondary stakeholders D. As a simple way to visualize stakeholders to determine appropriate responses E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT a type of latent stakeholder? A. Dependent B. Dormant C. Discretionary D. Demanding E. Exceptional

Q: Dominant, Dependent, and Dangerous are all types of which stakeholders? A. Latent B. Expectant C. Definite D. Absolute E. Indifferent

Q: Expectant stakeholders possess how many stakeholder attributes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None

Q: Definite stakeholders have: A. Power B. Urgency C. Both power and urgency D. Neither power nor urgency E. Only legitimacy

Q: Latent stakeholders are: A. Those that possess two of the stakeholder attributes B. Considered to have moderate salience C. Considered to have high salience D. Considered to have low salience E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the steps of the Stakeholder Management Process? A. Stakeholder Identification B. Stakeholder Prioritization C. Stakeholder Organization D. All of the above are steps of the Stakeholder Management Process E. None of the above

Q: A critical first step in the stakeholder management process is to: A. Properly identify stakeholders B. Assess the attributes of the stakeholders C. Divide the stakeholders into groups D. All of the above are true E. None of the above are true.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding stakeholder management? A. Adequate stakeholder management cannot financially benefit a company B. Stakeholders often have disparate needs when they relate to companies C. There is not a strong link between stakeholder management and competitive advantage D. Ignoring the needs of stockholders will not affect the company as a whole E. is not expensive

Q: Which of the following are key stakeholder attributes? A. Power B. Urgency C. Legitimacy D. Both a and b but not c E. A, B and C

Q: Utilitarian power can best be described as: A. The use of financial or other monetary means to force a company to accommodate a particular stakeholder need. B. The use of force, violence or other restraint to force a company to accommodate or respond to their needs. C. The use of symbolic and other resources to force a company to accommodate stakeholder needs D. None of the above E. All of the above

Q: Secondary stakeholders: A. Tend to be less directly linked to the companys survival than primary stakeholders B. Are typically directly linked to a companys survival C. Are either impacted or impact companies directly D. Include customers and suppliers E. Include employees

Q: An example of a primary stakeholder would be: A. The media B. Trade associations C. Customers D. Special interest-interest groups E. The government

Q: Which of the following is true regarding a strong stakeholder management approach? A. It means that a company has good relationships with its various stakeholders B. It has the potential to increase a companys financial performance C. It can provide a company with a strategic competitive advantage D. All of the above are true E. None of the above are true.

Q: Discuss the basic principles of virtue ethics.

Q: Compare and contrast Kantian ethics and utilitarianism. How can they be combined to make more ethical decisions?

Q: In the Ford Motors case, what did engineers decide not to include on their Ford Pinto production to cut costs, that cut costs and brought about an ethical issue? A. Flame resistant tires B. Seat belts C. Air bags D. Rear blinkers E. Rubber baldder in the gas tank

Q: Which of the following are benefits of Kantian? A. Fosters universal decisions that are not guided by specific situations B. Emphasized treating human beings with dignity and respect C. Focuses on principles rather than consequences of actions D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Individuals with __________ __________ are more likely to use the situation to justify the unethical choices A. High relativism B. Low relativism C. High idealisim D. Low idealism E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following are characteristics of institutional anomie theory (IAB)? A. Leads to conflicts between the social structure of a society and the goals of a society B. Members of society will resot to any means to achieve the societyal goals C. Disconnet from society D. Individuals willing to break laws to attain their goals E. All of the above

Q: Which of the following people are more likely to make ethcial choices when confronted with situations that have ethical implications? A. People that demonstrate relativism B. People that demonstrate idealism C. Both will encourage ethical choices D. Neither, as both discuss ethical theories

Q: The _________ and individual is on the _____________ scale, the more likely they will reject the existence of universal laws and codes. A. Lower, Idealism B. Higher, Idealism C. Higher, Relativism D. Lower, Relativism E. None of the above

Q: refers to the preferred way for individuals to approach ethical decision-making: A. Moral philosophies B. Ethical philosophies C. Relativism D. Idealism E. None of the above

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of virtue ethics? A. Employees who do things out of their moral ideals are ore likely to be trusted then those simply following rules B. Employees with virtue ethics are more likely to understand what ethical behavior should be performed. C. Individuals engage in virtue ethics are more motivated to make moral decisions D. All of the above E. None of the above

Q: Emphasis of decisions made by individuals of good moral character and integrity describes: A. Utilitarian ethics B. Virtue ethics C. Relativism D. Idealism E. None of the above

Q: In what way (s) is utilitarian ethics advantageous for organizational decision making? A. Helps to guage the impact of organizational decisions B. Forces decision-makers to consider both costs and benefits C. It doesn't provide any preference to any specific groups affected by decisions D. All of the above E. None of the above

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