Q&A Hero

Q: Secondary, or passive, smoke can cause death of lung cancer even in non-smokers. a. True b. False

Q: Workplace violence is a rare occurrence in the United States. a. True b. False

Q: OSHA's budget has generally been tight, but adequate to fully carry out its mission. a. True b. False

Q: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has had more than enough resources to accomplish its mission since it was formed. a. True b. False

Q: The main reason that Morgan Stanley employees fared so well in the 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Center was the company's preparation for terrorist attacks. a. True b. False

Q: Managers of a business can actually be convicted of murder for violations of safety standards. a. True b. False

Q: One privacy guideline states that firms should respect and preserve the boundary between work and home. a. True b. False

Q: The state laws that address drug testing usually ban them altogether. a. True b. False

Q: Drug testing by companies has risen continuously since first introduced. a. True b. False

Q: The primary ethical argument in favor of drug testing is the responsibility companies have to their employees and the public to provide safe workplaces, secure asset protection, and safe places in which to transact business. a. True b. False

Q: Integrity tests, unlike the polygraph, are not subject to legal constraints on their use. a. True b. False

Q: The U.S. Office of Personnel Management endorses integrity tests as valid. a. True b. False

Q: Integrity tests are known as the father of the polygraph. a. True b. False

Q: Use of the polygraph has been banned in virtually all situations. a. True b. False

Q: Modern polygraph machines and techniques have benefited from significant advances in technology, and are much more reliable than earlier methods of lie detection. a. True b. False

Q: Background checks are not concerning to privacy advocates. a. True b. False

Q: Employee rights to safety and health issues are growing. a. True b. False

Q: Part of the price we pay for the advances in technology is that information about us is stored in dozens of places. a. True b. False

Q: What advice would you give to management faced with a potential whistle-blowing situation? What should management do, and not do?

Q: Watch one of the movies listed in Figure 17.5. Describe some of the difficulties the whistle-blower encountered as a result of his or her actions.

Q: Is the employment-at-will doctrine fair to both employer and employee?

Q: Evaluate the differences between the old and new social contracts between employer and employee. Does one seem more fair than the other? If so, why?

Q: Discuss the shortcomings of the whistle-blower portion of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

Q: Using the authors' definition of whistle-blowing, the complaint must be lodged with some party outside the organization in question. By this definition, the actions of Sherron Watkins at Enron, Colleen Riley at the FBI, and Cynthia Cooper at WorldCom would not be considered whistle-blowing. Does the complainant have to report to an outside party for the action to qualify as whistle-blowing? Why or why not?

Q: To whom does an employee owe a duty? How does your answer affect the whistle-blowing process?

Q: Describe the range of duties covered by due process.

Q: Contrast the roles of ombudsman and human resource manager.

Q: Courts have interpreted some communications from employer to employee as implied contracts, even though the employer did not intend them as contracts. Evaluate the reasonableness of the courts' interpretations.

Q: Does an employee maintain her civil rights when she is at work? If so, how are they prioritized relative to other rights and duties at work?

Q: Explain why the private sector has historically not had to observe individuals' rights.

Q: Why does employee loyalty remain important under the new social contract? Why is it important?

Q: What are the impacts of a global economic recession on employee loyalty?

Q: Legal challenges to the employment-at-will doctrine include all the following except a. public policy exceptions. b. contractual actions. c. firing exceptions. d. breach of good faith actions.

Q: All of the following are key elements that comprise the whistle-blower process except a. the arbitrator. b. whistle-blower. c. the act or complaint about which the whistle-blower is concerned. d. the organization against which the complaint is made.

Q: Each of the following suggestions are encouraged for free and open speech in the workplace except a. Invite suggestions from employees b. Actively refute assumptions and myths that discourage communication c. Hesitate and make excuses for not implementing suggestions d. Tailor rewards so that employees share directly in cost savings or sales increases from ideas they offer.

Q: The Sarbanes-Oxley act applies to: a. contract workers b. self-employed citizens c. employees in publicly held firms d. the unemployed

Q: What incentives are provided to claimants under the False Claims Act? a. immunity from prosecution b. 15 to 25 percent of the proceeds from any settlement joined by the government c. guaranteed reinstatement and double back pay d. witness protection program

Q: What forms of retaliation might be aimed at a whistle-blower? a. not given promotion b. cold shoulder from coworkers c. transfer to another office d. all of these choices

Q: Things to consider before whistle-blowing include all of these except a. Have you identified sources of support? b. Does the disclosure advance public interest? c. Will you remain anonymous at all costs? d. Have you thought about the outcomes?

Q: Which of the following is true about the average whistle-blower? a. They are more highly paid than inactive observers. b. They have lower job performance reviews than inactive observers. c. They are less likely to hold supervisory or professional status than inactive observers. d. They are more likely to be single than inactive observers.

Q: Which of the following is not a key element in the whistle-blowing process? a. the act or complaint b. the party to whom the report is made c. the organization against which the complaint is made d. the law under which the complaint is lodged

Q: An individual who reports to some outside party some wrongdoing that he or she knows or suspects his or her employer of committing is a(n) a. informant. b. corporate traitor. c. whistle-blower. d. muckraker.

Q: A process in which a neutral party resolves a dispute between two or more parties and the resolution is binding is known as a. mediation. b. negotiation. c. adjudication. d. arbitration.

Q: The peer review panel a. is typically well-versed in company culture. b. is made up of senior managers from the company's headquarters. c. is housed in the legal department. d. is typically not well trusted within an organization.

Q: An ombudsman a. hears all formal employee complaints. b. is part of the human resources department. c. is a consultant hired by a company to chair hearing procedures. d. investigates reported complaints and helps to achieve equitable settlements.

Q: An alternative dispute resolution method that allows the employee to be represented by an attorney in front of a neutral company executive is called a. mediation. b. arbitration. c. a hearing procedure. d. trial by fire.

Q: One of the most used alternative dispute resolution methods is a. the open door policy. b. the suggestion box. c. the complaint box. d. employee complaint hotlines.

Q: Methods of providing due process for employees outside of the legal system are called a. arbitration. b. mediation. c. adjudication. d. alternative dispute resolution.

Q: Requirements of a due process system include all of the following except a. institutionalization. b. ease of use. c. subject to review and appeal. d. applicable to all employees.

Q: Which of the following is not a requirement of a due process system? a. It must follow rules and not be arbitrary. b. It must be well documented. c. It must be predictably effective. d. It must be perceived as equitable.

Q: The right to receive an impartial review of one's complaints and to be dealt with fairly is known as a. the right to a fair and speedy trial. b. the right to trial by a jury of one's peers. c. good faith bargaining. d. due process.

Q: Which of the following is not an action that managers should take when terminating employees? a. Fire employees in a private space b. Email the employee the termination c. Preserve the employee's dignity d. Use transparent criteria for layoffs

Q: The good cause norm is the opposite of a. the employment at will doctrine. b. the reason for wrongful discharge. c. the belief that employees should be discharged only for good reasons. d. based on private property rights.

Q: If employers do not give unsatisfactory employees every reasonable opportunity to improve their performance before being fired, the company may have violated a. the worker's right to free speech. b. the Equal Employment Opportunity Act. c. fair trade agreements. d. the good faith principle.

Q: Employer promises that they may not even know they made are called a. inherent intentions. b. implied contracts. c. public policies. d. good faith promises.

Q: ____ was protection for federal employees who expose illegal, corrupt, or wasteful government activities. a. Employment-At-Will Doctrine b. False Claims Act c. Civil Service Reform Act d. Michigan Whistle-Blowers Protection Act

Q: The exception that protects employees from being fired because they refuse to commit crimes or take advantage of privileges to which they are entitled by law is a. common law. b. the employee protection principle. c. the public policy exception. d. the fair employment loophole.

Q: The idea that the relationship between a worker and employer is voluntary and can be terminated at any time, by either party, is the a. employment-at-will doctrine. b. due process principle. c. corporate governance system. d. arbitrary employment doctrine.

Q: Under the employment-at-will doctrine, the only illegal reason for firing someone is a. fraud. b. discrimination. c. belonging to a union. d. poor financial performance.

Q: The belief that employees should only be discharged for good reasons is the a. justice as fairness principle. b. employment-at-will doctrine. c. good cause norm. d. sphere of justice principle.

Q: Employee rights can be based on any of the following except a. economic grounds. b. religious grounds. c. legal grounds. d. ethical grounds.

Q: Enterprise rights are derived from a. employer promises. b. labor demands. c. negotiated contracts. d. the labor market.

Q: Workers' rights provided through union contracts are established a. by law. b. through collective bargaining. c. by the employer. d. within an overarching framework of common law.

Q: Rights provided by law are called a. inherent rights. b. statutory rights. c. enterprise rights. d. negotiated rights.

Q: Employee rights are a. encompassed in private property law. b. guaranteed by the Constitution. c. spelled out in labor union contracts. d. justifiable claims that utility cannot override.

Q: Private corporations have not had to recognize employee rights because a. they are exempted from doing so by federal law. b. society has honored the corporation's private property rights. c. employees have never demanded them. d. management has been separated from ownership.

Q: The new free agent workers will be a. highly educated scientists and managers. b. more proactive about their work environments. c. more loyal to good employers than were their predecessors. d. willing to move overseas to pursue good opportunities.

Q: All the following are true of the new social contract except a. focus on teambuilding projects b. communication through technology c. pay that reflects contributions d. loyalty to employer

Q: The new social contract is placing on employees more responsibility for a. planning their retirement funding. b. career management. c. their own successful career/job and future in the employment relationship. d. their co-workers' advancement in the organization.

Q: Which one of the following is not a difference between the old social contract and the new? a. lifetime careers with one employer vs. fewer life careers b. loyalty to employer vs. loyalty to self and profession c. focus on team accomplishments vs. focus on team building d. stable positions vs. temporary assignments

Q: Today's employees are looking for a. competitive pay and benefits. b. opportunities for professional growth. c. meaningful work. d. all of these.

Q: Workers' trust in their employers is a. at an all-time high. b. a reciprocal relationship. c. based on the employee rights movement. d. higher in small companies than in large firms.

Q: The new social contract is being driven by a. the employee rights movement. b. technology. c. deregulation. d. global competition.

Q: A major exception to the employment-at-will doctrine is the public policy exception. a. True b. False

Q: One recommendation for dismissing employees is to fire employees in common work areas. a. True b. False

Q: A good way to avert whistle-blowing is for management to make a visible effort to listen and be responsive to employees' concerns. a. True b. False

Q: Whistle-blowing against abuse of government by private companies is making a comeback, due to the False Claims Act. a. True b. False

Q: The False Claims Act is relatively new legislation, passed in response to the scandals of Enron, WorldCom, and others. a. True b. False

Q: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act makes whistle-blowing much easier. a. True b. False

Q: Studies of whistle-blowers indicate that many are praised by their peers and managers, and often receive promotions for their actions. a. True b. False