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Q:
An employer can resolve the concerns related to the Hawthorne Effect through:
a. notified, random monitoring.
b. consented, selective monitoring.
c. selective, notified monitoring.
d. random, anonymous monitoring.
Q:
Employees will be on their best behavior during phone calls if they know that those calls are being monitored. Identify this effect of employee monitoring.
a. The placebo effect
b. The observer-expectancy effect
c. The Hawthorne effect
d. The halo effect
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Hawthorne Effect?
a. According to the Hawthorne effect, workers productivity improves when they are singled out.
b. According to the Hawthorne effect, workers show poor performance when they know that they are being monitored.
c. The Hawthorne effect allows managers to monitor their employees effectively.
d. The Hawthorne effect only occurs when the mechanisms used to monitor employees are unethical.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about monitoring?
a. It reduces workers right to control their environment without reducing the level of worker autonomy and respect.
b. It has the potential to cause physical disorders such as carpal tunnel syndrome.
c. It does not have a negative impact on performance.
d. It can lead to mental pressures, but health problems have not been reported.
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of monitoring?
a. Monitoring tends to constrain effective performance since it can cause increased stress and pressure.
b. Monitoring prevents employers from managing their workplaces to place workers in appropriate positions.
c. Monitoring does not allow managers to ensure compliance with affirmative action requirements.
d. Monitoring cannot be utilized to prevent the loss of productivity due to inappropriate technology use.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the Genetic Information Non-Discrimination Act of 2009 (GINA) is true?
a. Under GINA, an employer can collect genetic information in order to monitor the biological effects of toxic substances in the workplace.
b. Under GINA, an employer is subject to the same conditions as under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
c. Under GINA, an employer cannot collect genetic information in order to comply with the Family Medical Leave Act.
d. Under GINA, an employer cannot release genetic information about an employee to a public health agency.
Q:
Identify the situation prohibited by The Genetic Information Non-Discrimination Act of 2008 (GINA).
a. An employer releases genetic information about an employee in response to a court order.
b. An employer releases genetic information about an employee in connection with the employees compliance to the certification provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act.
c. An employer releases genetic information about an employee to a health researcher.
d. An employer releases genetic information about an employee to the human resource department differentiate among employees.
Q:
Which of the following acts stipulates that employers cannot use protected health information in making employment decisions without prior consent?
a. The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
b. The Federal Information Security Management Act
c. The Personal Information and Health Documents Act
d. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Q:
From a utilitarian perspective, individual rights to privacy or right to control information about oneself may be outweighed in cases where:
a. public safety is at risk.
b. the employee compensation package is very high.
c. the proposed benefit to the employer is high.
d. employee productivity depends directly on the number of hours they put in.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of drug testing?
a. Drug testing does not present any ethical challenges for employers.
b. Drug testing tends to provide a productivity benefit for companies.
c. There are no possibilities of incorrect presumptions in connection with drug testing.
d. There are no legal issues relating to monitoring employees through drug testing.
Q:
The desire to place workers in appropriate positions, to ensure compliance with affirmative action requirements, or to administer workplace benefits is sufficient reason for employers to undertake employee _____.
a. training
b. orientation
c. monitoring
d. drug testing
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of monitoring?
a. Monitoring tends to promote effective performance since it reduces employees stress and pressure.
b. Monitoring tends to create a friendly workplace without any suspicions.
c. Monitoring increases the level of worker autonomy and respect, as well as workers right to control their environment.
d. Monitoring allows to ensure effective performance by preventing the loss of productivity to inappropriate technology use.
Q:
When we do not get to know someone because we do not have to see that person in order to do our business, we often do not take into account the impact of our decisions on him or her. This is the challenge posed by the:
a. facelessness that results from the use of new technology accessible in the workplace.
b. knowledge gap that exists between people who understand the technology and others who do not understand it.
c. lack of clear boundaries between peoples personal and professional lives.
d. assumption by users of technology that the Internet is safe.
Q:
Which of the following is true about technology and its usage?
a. It prohibits access to any information that was once easily accessible.
b. It ensures that the lines between peoples personal lives and professional lives are not blurred.
c. It tends to cause facelessness that is a challenge that has to be met.
d. It allows users to be much more careful with their communications.
Q:
According to economist Antonio Argandona, which of the following elements would include issues relating to company secrets, espionage, and intelligence gathering?
a. Truthfulness and accuracy
b. Respect for property and safety rights
c. Respect for privacy
d. Accountability
Q:
The U.S. Department of Commerce negotiated a Safe Harbor exception:
a. because the U.S. would not qualify as having adequate protection.
b. so that the European Union could get access to personal information.
c. so that each European country could maintain its own standard of information gathering and protection while trading with the U.S.
d. because the law required that all imports to the European Union meet the Safe Harbor standards.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the European Unions Directive on Personal Data Protection?
a. It prohibits EU firms from transferring personal information to a non-EU country unless that country maintains adequate protections of its own.
b. It is also known as the European Union Safe Harbor Act.
c. It encourages member countries to maintain myriad standards for information gathering and protection.
d. It states that United States in the only non-member country that maintains adequate protection of personal data.
Q:
Which of the following states in the U.S. requires employers to notify workers when they are being monitored?
a. Ohio
b. Illinois
c. Michigan
d. Connecticut
Q:
If the basis for finding an invasion of privacy is often the employees legitimate and reasonable expectation of privacy, then a situation where there is no real expectation of privacy occurs when the:
a. employee has actual notice.
b. employer is covered under the ECPA.
c. work requires transference of sensitive data.
d. employee belongs to a minority group.
Q:
Name the legal violation that occurs when someone intentionally interferes on the private affairs of another when the interference would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.
a. Calumny
b. Vilification
c. Intrusion into seclusion
d. Defamation
Q:
Which of the following statements about the Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 is true?
a. Courts have ruled that the interception of stored communications applies only to messages that have actually reached company computers.
b. A firm that secures employee consent to monitoring at the time of hire is immune from ECPA liability.
c. The impact of the ECPA is to punish electronic monitoring only by employers.
d. The ECPA does not allow interception even when consent has been granted.
Q:
Discuss the various ways through which affirmative action can arise within a workplace.
Q:
What is affirmative action?
Q:
Summarize the influences of diversity within a workplace.
Q:
What are the different ways in which women experience discrimination at the workplace?
Q:
Contrast the two dominant perspectives on sweatshops.
Q:
Explain the concept of standards and cost-benefit analysis. Discuss the advantages of cost-effectiveness as against the cost-benefit analysis.
Q:
How do mandatory government standards work?
Q:
Remunerate the various problems associated with workplace health and safety as a market controlled approach.
Q:
Correlate health and safety issues at workplace with ideals.
Q:
Discuss the issue of giving notice to the employees about organizational downsizing.
Q:
Discuss in brief, the guidelines suggested for tackling downsizing within an organization.
Q:
Discuss the crucial aspect of employment at will (EAW), where it is given first preference.
Q:
Discuss the various aspects associated with employment at will (EAW).
Q:
Correlate the right of due process to the workplace.
Q:
Describe in brief, the two approaches to employee treatment discussed in this chapter.
Q:
The term _____ refers to a policy or a program that tries to respond to instances of past discrimination by implementing proactive measures to ensure equal opportunity today.
Q:
_____ is discrimination against those traditionally considered to be in power or the majority.
Q:
_____ refers to the presence of differing cultures, languages, ethnicities, races, affinity orientations, genders, religious sects, abilities, social classes, ages, and national origins of the individuals in a firm.
Q:
The use of _____ analysis in setting workplace health and safety standards commits us to treating worker health and safety as just another commodity, another individual preference, to be traded off against competing commodities.
Q:
A commitment to using _____ for setting standards would require that, once the standards are set, we adopt the least expensive and most efficient means available for achieving those standards.
Q:
In 1970, the U.S. Congress established the _____ and charged it with establishing workplace health and safety standards.
Q:
For employee health and safety in the workplace, _____ is determined by comparing the probabilities of harm involved in various activities.
Q:
The life of one who dies in a workplace accident has _____ value that can be measured, in part, by the lost wages that would have been earned had that person lived.
Q:
EAW is the default position on which courts will rely until and unless an exception can be demonstrated. The burden of proof lies with the dismissed employee to show that she or he was unjustly or illegally fired. Due process and _____, whether instituted as part of internal corporate policy or through legislation, would reverse this burden of proof and require employers to show cause to justify the dismissal of an employee.
Q:
The doctrine of _____ holds that, unless an agreement specifies otherwise, employers are free to fire an employee at any time and for any reason.
Q:
A claim which states that people who pay for wrongs are unfairly burdened and should not bear the responsibility for the acts of others, is opposing _____.
a. reverse discrimination
b. judicial activity within organizations
c. affirmative action
d. authoritative leadership
Q:
Which of the following affirmative action plans would include training plans and programs, focused recruiting activity, or the elimination of discrimination?
a. Quasi-affirmative action
b. Executive affirmation action
c. Judicial affirmative action
d. Voluntary affirmative action
Q:
The law relating to affirmative action applies only to about 20 percent of the workforce who are subject to Executive Order 11246, which requires affirmative action efforts to ensure equal opportunity. Which of the following is required by courts in order to remedy a finding of past discrimination, when Executive Order 11246 is not applicable?
a. Voluntary affirmative action
b. Judicial affirmative action
c. Quasi-affirmative action
d. Executive affirmation action
Q:
All of the following are ways through which affirmative action can arise at the workplace except:
a. through legal requirements.
b. through judicial affirmative action.
c. consultant based affirmative action.
d. voluntary affirmative action plans.
Q:
Which of the following refers to a policy or a program that tries to respond to instances of past discrimination by implementing proactive measures to ensure equal opportunity today?
a. Gentrification
b. Bully Broads
c. Just cause
d. Affirmative action
Q:
An organization, in an attempt to avoid discrimination suits filed against it, intentionally hires a lot of African-American women, and a few disabled people. Which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. The performance of the organization will increase.
b. The organization will win an award for equity.
c. There will be an increase in the number of diversity training sessions.
d. A white man or a woman will file a reverse discrimination suit.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of reverse discrimination in America?
a. An African-American interviewer rejects another African-American based on ethnicity.
b. A female interviewer rejects a male interviewee because of gender.
c. A white interviewer rejects an African-American based on ethnicity.
d. A female interviewer rejects another female interviewee because of gender.
Q:
Which of the following is discrimination against those traditionally considered to be in power or the majority?
a. Reverse discrimination
b. Affirmative action
c. Inverse discrimination
d. Backward discrimination
Q:
The Title VII of the _____, passed in 1964, created the prohibited classes of discrimination.
a. International Labour Act
b. United States Civil Rights Act
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Act
d. Uniform Employment Termination Act
Q:
The Tripartite part of the Tripartite Declaration of Principles Concerning Multinational Enterprises and Social Policy refers to critical cooperation necessary from all of the following except:
a. governments.
b. employers and workers organizations.
c. multinational enterprises involved.
d. the suppliers and agents associated with the firm.
Q:
According to the universal principle of Kantian philosophy, the ethical obligation of _____ should guide employment interactions.
a. family responsibilities
b. respect for people
c. religion
d. core customs
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about cost-benefit analysis?
a. It treats health and safety merely as an intrinsic value and denies its instrumental value.
b. It requires that an economic value be placed on ones life and bodily integrity.
c. It adopts the least expensive and most efficient means available to achieve existing standards.
d. It uses ethical criteria in setting standards.
Q:
Identify the distinguishing feature between cost-benefit analysis and cost-effectiveness.
a. Cost-effectiveness is ethically problematic.
b. Cost-benefit analysis adopts the most efficient means available to achieving a particular standard.
c. Cost-benefit analysis is ethically problematic.
d. Cost-effectiveness uses economic criteria before setting the standards.
Q:
Critics in both industry and government argue that OSHA should aim to achieve the optimal, rather than highest feasible, level of safety. Which of the following can be used to achieve this goal?
a. Cost-utility analysis
b. Cost-minimization analysis
c. Cost-benefit analysis
d. Cost-effectiveness analysis
Q:
Identify the approach that allows the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to make tradeoffs between health and economics.
a. Sustainability approach
b. Integrative approach
c. Market controlled approach
d. Feasibility approach
Q:
Identify the correct statement about government standards in the government-regulated ethics approach to health and safety.
a. Due to its focus on prevention rather than compensation, standards cannot address the first generation problem of the market controlled approach to health and safety.
b. Standards would favor individual bargaining between employers and employees as the approach to workplace health and safety.
c. Standards can overcome market failures that result from insufficient information.
d. Standards call for the determination of comparison of probabilities of harm involved in various activities.
Q:
Which of the following problems are associated with the market controlled approach to health and safety?
a. Employees do not know the risks involved in a job and therefore are not in a position to freely bargain for appropriate wages.
b. It ignores the fundamental deontological right an employee might have to a safe and healthy working environment.
c. It assumes an equivalency between workplace risks and other types of risks when there are significant differences between them.
d. It treats employees disrespectfully by ignoring their input as stakeholders.
Q:
Enlightened self-interest would be a valuable theory to introduce and apply in the _____ approach to health and safety.
a. market controlled
b. integrative
c. acceptable risk
d. government-regulated
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the market controlled approach to health and safety?
a. It treats employees disrespectfully by ignoring their input as stakeholders.
b. In this approach, employees are free to choose the risks they are willing to face by bargaining with employers.
c. It assumes an equivalency between workplace risks and other types of risks when there are significant differences between them.
d. It calls for the determination of comparison of probabilities of harm involved in various activities.
Q:
Identify the challenge faced by the acceptable risk approach to health and safety.
a. It is a liberal approach to health and safety that allows employees to recognize the risk they are likely to face.
b. It involves the determination of relative risks, the calculation of which is a complicated process and not always reliable.
c. It assumes differences between workplace risks and other types of risks when there are significant similarities between them.
d. It ignores the fundamental deontological right an employee might have to a safe and healthy working environment.
Q:
Which of the following is true of the acceptable risk approach to health and safety?
a. It is a liberal approach to health and safety that allows employees to recognize the risk they are likely to face.
b. It involves the determination of relative risks, the calculation of which is a complicated process and not always reliable.
c. It treats employees disrespectfully by ignoring their input as stakeholders.
d. It assumes differences between workplace risks and other types of risks when there are significant similarities between them.
Q:
Which of the following approaches to health and safety at the workplace can be considered paternalistic decision making which treats employees like children and makes crucial decisions for them?
a. Government-regulated ethics approach
b. Diversifiable risk approach
c. Acceptable level of risk approach
d. Market controlled approach
Q:
When can we conclude that an activity has an acceptable level of risk?
a. If it can be determined that the probability of harm involved in a specific work activity is manageable.
b. If the probability of harm involved in a specific work activity is acceptable by insurance and workers compensation laws.
c. If it can be determined that the probability of harm involved in a specific work activity is equal to or less than the probability of harm of some more common activity.
d. If the employers are willing to compensate the harm caused to workers for a specific activity.
Q:
Comparison of the probabilities of harm involved in various activities would determine the _____.
a. acceptable level of risks
b. absolute risks
c. speculative risks
d. relative risks
Q:
Discussions in ethics about employee health and safety tend to focus on the relative risks workers face and the level of acceptable workplace risk because:
a. workers compensation is easier to calculate.
b. employers cannot be responsible for providing an ideally safe and healthy workplace.
c. insurance laws mandate the focus on relative risks and acceptability of workplace risk.
d. it results in a completely safe and healthy workplace.
Q:
With regard to health and safety at workplace, _____ can be determined by comparing the probabilities of harm involved in various activities.
a. variable obstacles
b. absolute impediments
c. relative risks
d. comparative barriers
Q:
With regard to health and safety at workplace, _____ can be defined as the probability of harm.
a. obstacles
b. impediments
c. risks
d. barriers
Q:
Which of the following is true of health and safety at the workplace?
a. Health and safety have instrumental value and intrinsic value.
b. Employers are responsible to provide a completely safe and healthy workplace.
c. Financial compensation can replace the value of life lost due to lack of health and safety measures.
d. Employers do not have the right to fire employees on grounds of health and safety.
Q:
The _____ value of the life is something that financial compensation cannot replace.
a. absolute
b. instrumental
c. intrinsic
d. extrinsic
Q:
The life of one who dies in a workplace accident has _____ value that can be measured, in part, by the lost wages that would have been earned had that person lived.
a. absolute
b. instrumental
c. intrinsic
d. extrinsic
Q:
In some regions, employees lack even the most basic health and safety protections in their workplaces. Such work environments are termed as _____.
a. op shops
b. holes-in-the-walls
c. haberdasheries
d. sweatshops
Q:
During the process of downsizing, allowing a worker to remain in a position for a period of time once she or he has been notified of impending termination might not be the best option. Identify the correct justification for this statement.
a. Workers will interpret early notice as an effort to allow them time to come to grips with the loss of their jobs.
b. Terminated workers will not be inclined to put their best effort, which might result in lost revenues.
c. Workers who are not terminated will have a bad impression about the organization for terminating their coworkers.
d. Terminated workers may interpret early notice as an effort to get the most out of them before departure.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the doctrine of employment at will (EAW) is true?
a. Employment at will holds that employers can fire an employee at any time, but have to provide them with a valid reason.
b. The freedom to terminate the employer-employee relationship is mutual, both theoretically and practically.
c. The ethical rationale for EAW has both utilitarian and deontological elements.
d. Civil rights laws are not an exception to the EAW because it prohibits firing someone on the basis of membership in certain prohibited classes.
Q:
Identify the doctrine which holds that employers are free to fire an employee at any time and for any reason, unless an agreement specifies otherwise.
a. The doctrine of estoppel
b. The doctrine of constructive notice
c. The doctrine of constructive dismissal
d. The doctrine of employment at will