Q&A Hero

Q: While approaching an ethical issue in marketing, the rights-based tradition would: a. ask to what degree the participants are respected as free and autonomous agents rather than treated simply as means to the end of making a sale. b. calculate the benefits and costs of each exchange. c. attempt to find out about other values that are affected by the exchange. d. want to know the degree to which the transaction provided actual as opposed to merely apparent benefits for each participant.

Q: The simple situation in which two parties come together and freely agree to an exchange is ethically legitimate only prima facie because: a. investigation proves that a simple exchange does not involve unethical situations. b. a simple exchange involves the consent of both parties involved, which leaves no room for unethical acts. c. certain conditions must be met before it can be concluded that autonomy has been respected and mutual benefit has been achieved. d. exchange occurs on mutual consent and for mutual benefit, parties get involved in an exchange only if they see their benefit.

Q: The _____ ethical tradition would take the two parties agreement as evidence that both are better off than they were prior to the exchange and thus conclude that overall happiness has been increased by any exchange freely entered into. a. utilitarian b. virtual c. Kantian d. deontological

Q: The _____ ethical tradition would see a simple situation of an agreement for an exchange between two parties as upholding respect for individuals by treating them as autonomous agents capable of pursuing their own ends. a. role-based b. rights-based c. rules-based d. strategy-based

Q: Which of the following is one of the Four Ps of marketing? a. Purpose b. Planning c. Promotion d. People

Q: Which of the following is a set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefit the organization and its stakeholders? a. Procuring b. Branding c. Marketing d. Copywriting

Q: Consumer vulnerability occurs when a person has an impaired ability to make an informed consent to the market exchange.

Q: The utilitarian tradition in ethics would have the strongest objections to manipulation.

Q: When consumers are injured by a product in which no negligence is involved and no one is at fault, the legal doctrine of strict product liability holds manufacturers accountable.

Q: Negligence involves the ability to foresee the consequences of our acts.

Q: Under a contract model, the duties that a person owes are not merely those explicitly promised to another party, but also those that are implied.

Q: Most courts allow a business to completely disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability.

Q: The implied warranty of merchantability holds that in selling a product, a business implicitly offers assurances that the product is reasonably suitable for its purpose.

Q: In a strict liability case, if it can be proved that a business was as careful as possible about its product or service, it is not held liable for the harm that results from its use.

Q: Externalities show that even if both parties to the exchange receive actual benefits from the exchange, other parties external to the exchange might be adversely affected.

Q: On the sole basis that someone wants to buy something and someone else is willing to sell it, a transaction is ethically legitimate.

Q: Unsafe products do not further the utilitarian goal of maximizing overall happiness.

Q: The condition where lesser consumption leads to unhappiness is termed affluenza.

Q: A condition for respect requires that consent be not only voluntary, but also informed.

Q: While approaching an ethical issue in marketing, the utilitarian tradition would ask to what degree the participants are respected as free and autonomous agents rather than treated simply as means to the end of making a sale.

Q: The Four Ps of marketing include product, price, promotion, and placement.

Q: The impact of the ECPA is to punish electronic monitoring only by third parties and not by employers because courts have ruled that interception applies only: a. to access of messages by employers. b. when monitoring is done without consent. c. when employees file a case. d. to messages in transit.

Q: Which of the following prohibits the interception or unauthorized access of stored communications? a. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 b. The Computer Security Act of 1987 c. The Privacy Act of 1974 d. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986

Q: The Constitutions Fourth Amendment protection against an unreasonable search and seizure governs only the public sector workplace because: a. unions exist only in public sector organizations. b. the private sector does not cater to appeals of unreasonable search or seizure. c. the Constitution applies only to state action. d. only public sector organizations deal with classified information.

Q: _____ refers to the body of law comprised of the decisions handed down by courts, rather than specified in any particular statutes or regulations. a. Statutory law b. Common law c. Civil law d. Constitutional law

Q: Which of the following is true about privacy? a. The right to privacy is not restricted by any social contract. b. Privacy cannot be legally protected by common law. c. Privacy can be legally protected by the constitution. d. The right to privacy is unrelated to the universal right to autonomy.

Q: According to Donaldson and Dunfee, the right to _____ is an example of a hypernorm. a. a safe workplace. b. public information. c. vote d. physical movement

Q: According to Donaldson and Dunfee, examples of hypernorms include the right to: a. a safe workplace. b. public information. c. personal freedom. d. vote.

Q: Values that are fundamental across culture and theory are called: a. authentic norms. b. hypernorms. c. ethnocentric norms. d. executive norms.

Q: Two general and connected understandings of privacy have been identified: privacy as a right to be left alone within a personal zone of solitude, and privacy as the: a. right to understand ones emotions. b. right to understand others emotions. c. right to control information about others. d. right to control information about oneself.

Q: Discrimination laws do not necessarily protect workers against adverse action based on the identity of the person they married.

Q: Employers in all parts of the U.S.A. are prohibited from making employment decisions on the basis of weight, even if they are not in violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).

Q: One of the problems associated with giving prior notice of monitoring is the Hawthorne Effect.

Q: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) stipulates that employers can use protected health information in making employment decisions without prior consent.

Q: Monitoring allows the manager to ensure effective, productive performance by preventing the loss of productivity to inappropriate technology use.

Q: Internet use monitoring is evolving with the rise of social media and social networking use in recent years.

Q: The European Unions Directive on Personal Data Protection does not in any way prohibit E.U. firms from transferring personal information to a non-E.U. country.

Q: The invasion of privacy claim developed through case law called intrusion into seclusion.

Q: The Constitutions Fourth Amendment protection against an unreasonable search and seizure governs only the private sector workplace.

Q: The concept of property rights excludes personal information.

Q: The value of privacy to civilized society is as great as the value of hypernorms to civilized existence.

Q: According to Donaldson and Dunfee, the right to personal freedom is an example of a hypernorm.

Q: Values that are fundamental across culture and theory are not hypernorms.

Q: The right to privacy is restricted by a social contract in our culture that prevents us from infringing on someone elses right to her or his personal autonomy.

Q: Privacy is important because it serves to define ones individuality.

Q: Briefly discuss the USA PATRIOT Act with regard to September 11, 2001.

Q: Discuss the facts pertaining to laws against discrimination based on marital status.

Q: Outline the business reasons to limiting monitoring.

Q: Describe HIPAA. Discuss the use of genetic information as a form of monitoring.

Q: Discuss the nuances associated with drug testing, and outline the arguments for and against it.

Q: Why do firms monitor technology usage?

Q: Briefly outline the challenges of technology discussed in the text.

Q: Summarize what economist Antonio Argandona says about information and data in the age of technology, and the moral requirements associated with that information.

Q: Briefly discuss the circumstances which violate an employees privacy rights?

Q: Explain the implications of giving notice about monitoring.

Q: Explain how privacy can be legally protected. Summarize the Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA). Discuss the intrusion into seclusion concept.

Q: Explain the ethical source of privacy using the perspective of property rights.

Q: Explain the concept of hypernorms, and moral free space.

Q: Describe reciprocal obligation as an ethical source of the right to privacy.

Q: Summarize how the definition of privacy gives rise to two streams of thought about rights?

Q: How do privacy issues at the workplace raise ethical issues involving individual rights as well as those involving utilitarian consequences?

Q: The _____ Act expanded states rights with regard to Internet surveillance technology, including workplace surveillance, and amended the Electronic Communications Privacy Act.

Q: Most statutes or common law decisions provide for employer defenses for those rules that are necessary to avoid a conflict of _____.

Q: New Yorks _____ statute prohibits employment decisions or actions based on four categories of off-duty activity.

Q: Philosopher William Parent conceives the right to privacy as the right to _____.

Q: With regard to medical information specifically, employers decisions are not only governed by the Americans with Disabilities Act but also restricted by the _____ Act.

Q: The rise of social media and social networking use in recent years has given rise to the evolution of _____ monitoring.

Q: The advent of new _____ challenges privacy in ways that people could never before imagine.

Q: invasion of privacy claim developed through case law called _____.

Q: The impact of ECPA is to punish electronic monitoring only by _____ and not by employers.

Q: According to philosopher Patricia Werhane, for an individual to expect respect for her or his personal autonomy, that individual has a _____ to respect the autonomy of others.

Q: Which of the following is true about the USA PATRIOT Act? a. The act does not grant access to sensitive data with only a court order. b. The act expands states rights with regard to Internet surveillance technology. c. The act excludes provisions designed to combat money laundering activity. d. The act does not enhance civil and criminal penalties for intentionally aiding terrorists.

Q: Title II of the USA PATRIOT Act provides roving surveillance authority under the: a. Federal Information Security Management Act to track website access of individuals. b. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act to track individuals. c. Electronic Communications Surveillance Act to track business transactions. d. International Surveillance of Terrorists Act to track individuals in countries with diplomatic relations.

Q: Which of the following acts grants access to sensitive data with only a court order rather than a judicial warrant and imposes or enhances civil and criminal penalties for knowingly or intentionally aiding terrorists? a. The Federal Information Security Management Act b. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act c. The USA PATRIOT Act d. The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

Q: Identify the act that expanded states rights with regard to Internet surveillance technology, including workplace surveillance, and amended the Electronic Communications Privacy Act. a. The USA PATRIOT Act b. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act c. The Federal Information Security Management Act d. The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

Q: Most statutes or common law decisions provide for employer defenses for all of the following EXCEPT: a. those rules that are reasonable and rationally related to the employment activities of a particular employee. b. those rules that treat one group differently from another considering lifestyle practices. c. those rules that are necessary to avoid a conflict of interest or the appearance of conflict of interest. d. those rules that constitute a bona fide occupational requirement.

Q: Identify the policy under which an employer refuses to hire or terminates a worker whose spouse works at a competing firm. a. Anti-nepotism policy b. Antitrust policy c. Affirmative action policy d. Conflict-of-interest policy

Q: Which of the following about the regulation of off-work acts in the U.S. is true? a. Many states ban discrimination on the basis of weight. b. Laws that protect employees against discrimination based on marital status exist in just under half of the states. c. Only a small minority of states protect employees against discrimination on the basis of political involvement. d. Lifestyle discrimination tends to be lawful if the imposition of the rule treats one protected group differently than another.

Q: Some companies have a(n) _____ policy under which an employer refuses to hire or terminates a worker on the basis of the spouses working at the same firm. a. anti-nepotism b. conflict-of-interest c. anti-fraternization d. antitrust

Q: If an employees weight is evidence of or results from a disability, the employer must explore whether the worker is otherwise qualified for the position. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the individual is considered otherwise qualified if she or he: a. has prior work experience relevant to the position, even if she or he is not able to perform the functions of the position due to the disability. b. can perform normal daily activities like taking a bath and eating. c. can perform the functions of the position with or without reasonable accommodations. d. has a good academic record and good conduct.