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Business Ethics
Q:
Which of the following is true of a market-based approach to resolving environmental challenges?
a. It is critical of the narrow, philanthropic view of corporate social responsibility (CSR).
b. It asserts that limited resources should not be distributed in the market.
c. It suggests that environmental problems deserve economic solutions.
d. It conveys that resources are infinite and fungible.
Q:
Reminiscent of the _____ tradition, it is suggested that some animals have the cognitive capacity to possess a conscious life of their own and people have a duty not to treat these animals as mere objects and means to their own ends.
a. Kantian
b. virtue ethic
c. neoclassical
d. social web
Q:
The conservation movement:
a. regarded natural resources as being able to provide an inexhaustible supply of material.
b. advocated that the natural world should not be used as a capital resource.
c. argued that the natural world was valued as a resource, providing humans with both direct benefits and indirect benefits.
d. believed that business does not good reasons for conserving natural resources.
Q:
Which of the following is true of the conservation movement?
a. It advocated that the natural world should not be used as a capital resource.
b. It regarded natural resources as being able to provide an inexhaustible supply of material.
c. It recommended a more restrained and prudent approach to the natural world.
d. It argued against the natural world being used to provide indirect benefits.
Q:
Knowing what the future must be, creative businesses then look backwards to the present and determine what must be done to arrive at that future. This process is known as:
a. backward integration.
b. forecasting.
c. forward integration.
d. backcasting.
Q:
The Triple Bottom Line approach involves measuring business success of sustainable businesses and sustainable economic development in terms of:
a. economic, legal, and environmental sustainability.
b. economic, ethical, and environmental sustainability.
c. economic, legal, and competitive sustainability.
d. legal, competitive, and environmental sustainability.
Q:
The ultimate goal of biomimicry is to eliminate waste altogether rather than reducing it.
Q:
The circular flow model differentiates natural resources from the other factors of production.
Q:
The goal of competitive sustainability is referred to as one of the three pillars of sustainability.
Q:
The regulatory model assumes that economic growth is environmentally and ethically benign.
Q:
Before the introduction of environmental legislation in the 1970s, the primary legal avenue open for addressing environmental concerns was contractual law.
Q:
A first generation approach is ill advised when public policy involves irreplaceable public goods.
Q:
Internalizing external costs and assigning property rights to unowned goods are responses to market failures.
Q:
Standards like Corporate Automotive Fuel Efficiency that address pollution and pollution-related disease are considered essentially because of our reliance on market solutions to sustain the environment.
Q:
From a strict market economic perspective, resources are finite, and have to be used efficiently to gain maximum economic benefits.
Q:
According to William Baxter, the optimal level of pollution is best attained by leaving it to a competitive market.
Q:
The market-based approach to resolving environmental challenges denies that environmental problems are economic problems that deserve economic solutions.
Q:
Businesses that use animals for food, entertainment, or pets violate the ethical rights of these animals.
Q:
The conservation movement advocated a more restrained and prudent approach to the natural world.
Q:
According to the conservation movement, the natural world was valued as a resource, providing humans with both direct and indirect benefits.
Q:
The Economic Development Approach suggests that sustainable business and sustainable economic development seek to create new ways of doing business in which business success is measured in terms of economic, ethical, and environmental sustainability.
Q:
Discuss the ethical issues associated with advertising.
Q:
Explain the utilitarian perspective of manipulation.
Q:
Explain what the ethical and the unethical means of influencing others include. What is its impact in advertising?
Q:
Discuss the claims made by the defenders of the strict product liability standard to justify strict product liability.
Q:
Outline how the reasonable person concept can be interpreted in different ways. How can it lead to one interpreting this concept normatively?
Q:
Discuss the constraints of the concept of negligence, and explain the reasonable person concept.
Q:
Explain the concept of negligence.
Q:
Outline the duties under a contract model, and the ethical perspective that underlies tort law.
Q:
Describe the ethical manifestations associated with a contractual standard of product safety.
Q:
Explain the contractual standards for product safety.
Q:
Outline the implication of the social contract tradition within business.
Q:
Summarize the three issues pertaining to marketing ethically.
Q:
Explain the rights-based and the utilitarian perspectives on the situation of an exchange between two parties, coming together freely.
Q:
Identify the Four Ps of marketing.
Q:
List out all the factors considered and the decisions made in the process of marketing.
Q:
_____ occurs when someone is susceptible to some specific physical, psychological, or financial harm.
Q:
Economist John Kenneth Galbraith claimed that advertising and marketing were creating the very consumer demand that production then aimed to satisfy. Dubbed the _____, this assertion held that consumer demand relied on what producers had to sell.
Q:
The _____ tradition offers a conditional critique of manipulation, depending on the consequences.
Q:
The _____ standard of tort law focuses on the sense of responsibility that involves liability or fault.
Q:
The _____ standard implies that unthoughtful people cannot be negligent, since one escapes liability by not actually thinking about the consequences of ones act.
Q:
According to the _____ approach, every purchase involves the informed consent of the buyer and therefore it is assumed to be ethically legitimate.
Q:
The legal doctrine of _____ is ethically controversial because it holds a business accountable for paying damages whether or not it was at fault.
Q:
An adequate ethical analysis of marketing must consider _____, those costs that are not integrated within the exchange of the buyer and the seller.
Q:
It is not always easy to determine if someone is being treated with respect in marketing situations. A condition for respect requires that customer consent be not only voluntary, but also _____.
Q:
While approaching an ethical issue in marketing, the _____ tradition would want to know the degree to which the transaction provided actual as opposed to merely apparent benefits.
Q:
Which of the following refers to the growing marketing practice of taking back ones products after their useful life?
a. Reintermediation
b. Reverse channels
c. Disintermediation
d. Forward integration
Q:
Labeling products with such terms as environmentally friendly, natural, eco, energy efficient, biodegradable and the like can help promote products that have little or no environmental benefits. This practice is known as:
a. greenskinning.
b. redlining.
c. gentrification.
d. greenwashing.
Q:
Identify the practice of promoting a product by misleading consumers about the environmentally beneficial aspects of the product.
a. Greenwashing
b. Redlining
c. Gentrification
d. Greenskinning
Q:
Which of the following is an often overlooked aspect of advertising?
a. Pricing function
b. Evaluation function
c. Educational function
d. Watchdog function
Q:
UniCoa multinational corporation that specializes in designing, developing, and selling consumer electronicsoutsources manufacturing products to a third-world country company. Human rights activists have criticized UniCo for operating inhumane sweatshops at the manufacturing plants to gain profits. Although UniCo. is not directly liable to the labor exploitation, it threatens to pull out its business from the contracted company if the laborers are not provided with dignified wages and good working conditions. Which of the following responsibilities did the company fulfill in this scenario?
a. Caveat emptor
b. Implied merchantability
c. Respondent superior
d. Strict liability
Q:
An employer is held liable for damages caused by an accident involving an employee driving the company car on company business. Identify the law underlying this decision.
a. The doctrine of caveat emptor
b. The doctrine of respondent superior
c. Implied warranty of merchantability
d. The doctrine of caveat lector
Q:
Marketing experts consider stealth marketing extraordinarily effective because:
a. a consumer does not question the message as she might challenge a traditional advertising campaign.
b. the consumers guard is not down while accepting the message.
c. consumers do not see the communication as too personal and often tend to trust an advertisement or other marketing material much more than they would trust the communicator.
d. consumers seek out the communicators vested interest.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about stealth marketing?
a. It occurs when consumers are aware that they are subject to a marketing campaign.
b. It refers to situations where consumers are subject to directed commercial activity without their knowledge.
c. It occurs when consumers pay little or no attention to billboards while speeding past a highway.
d. It is not an intentional effort to hide the true marketing element of the interaction.
Q:
Consumers are vulnerable when they are not aware that they are subject to a marketing campaign. This type of campaign is called:
a. imminent marketing.
b. word-of-mouth marketing.
c. network marketing.
d. undercover marketing.
Q:
General vulnerability occurs when:
a. a person has an impaired ability to make an informed consent to the market exchange.
b. a person is susceptible to some specific physical, psychological, or financial harm.
c. children are shown commercials in and around schools.
d. people are susceptible to the harm of not satisfying their consumer desires and/or losing their money.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of consumer vulnerability?
a. Elderly people susceptible to expensive health care bills
b. Poor people susceptible to bankruptcy
c. Children susceptible to any bright, attractive items of no practical value
d. Single women walking alone at night susceptible to sexual assault
Q:
Consumer vulnerability occurs when:
a. a person has an impaired ability to make an informed consent to the market exchange.
b. a person is susceptible to injuries from falls and medical emergencies.
c. the consumer is treated as an end in itself.
d. the law of supply and demand is reversed.
Q:
How does advertising distort the economy?
a. It manipulates prices for promotion to gain a foothold in a market.
b. It results in supply becoming a function of demand.
c. It is not able to create nonautonomous desires.
d. It creates irrational and trivial consumer wants.
Q:
Which of the following do advertising and other marketing practices violate by creating consumer wants?
a. Right to free speech
b. Consumer autonomy
c. Right to privacy
d. Consumer demand
Q:
Identify one of the implications of the dependence effect.
a. Unless a seller explicitly warrants a product as safe, buyers are liable for any harm they suffer.
b. Advertising and marketing create consumer wants that support the entire economy.
c. The courts ruling on product liability cases is dependent on the extent of manipulation.
d. By creating consumer wants, advertising and other marketing practices violate consumer autonomy.
Q:
According to economist John Kenneth Galbraith, advertising and marketing were creating the very consumer demand that production then aimed to satisfy. The assertion that consumer demand relies upon what producers have to sell is termed:
a. the Hawthorne effect.
b. the dependence effect.
c. the reverse channel effect.
d. the supplemental effect.
Q:
Marketing practices targeted at elderly populations for goods such as supplemental health insurance, funerals etc. are subject to criticism because:
a. that population is vulnerable.
b. interest gained on such investments are not highly profitable.
c. they target the considered and rational desires of the consumers.
d. they do not abide by the principles of welfare economics.
Q:
Which of the following statements about manipulation would a strong believer of the principle-based ethical tradition most likely support?
a. Cases of paternalistic manipulation, in which someone is manipulated for their own good, are acceptable.
b. Manipulation executed without deception is acceptable.
c. Even unsuccessful manipulations are guilty of ethical wrong.
d. The ethical consequence of manipulation depends on the personal characteristics of the manipulator.
Q:
Which of the following ethical traditions would have the strongest objections to manipulation?
a. Economic
b. Virtue-based
c. Principle-based
d. Utilitarian
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about manipulation?
a. It involves total control of direction or management.
b. A person cannot manipulate someone without deception.
c. It implies guiding peoples behavior with their conscious understanding.
d. To manipulate something is to guide or direct its behavior.
Q:
Society creates a strong incentive for businesses to produce safer goods and services by holding them responsible for any harm their products cause. This claim supports the:
a. strict product liability standard.
b. actual foreseeability standard.
c. reasonable person standard.
d. consent and informed decision standard.
Q:
Which of the following is true about strict product liability?
a. The United States has adopted clear strict liability standards.
b. It holds that the government must pay consumers where neither the producer nor the consumer is at fault.
c. It insures that society creates a strong incentive for business to produce safer goods and services by holding business strictly liable for any harm their products cause.
d. It is the same as negligence, and it suggests that holding business liable for harms caused due to negligence provides an incentive to better protect products in the future.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about negligence?
a. It is not a central component of tort law.
b. One can be negligent by doing something that one should not.
c. One cannot be held negligent by failing to do something that one should have done.
d. It excludes acts of both commission and omission.
Q:
Which of the following is true about tort law?
a. Tort law holds that the only duties that a person owes are those that have been explicitly promised to another party.
b. Tort law holds manufacturers accountable in cases when consumers are injured by products and no one is at fault.
c. Tort law holds a principal responsible for the actions of an agent when that agent is acting in the ordinary course of his or her duties to the principal.
d. Tort law holds that people do not owe other people any general duties, if they have not voluntarily assumed them.
Q:
How did the use of an implied warranty of merchantability solve a set of problems with the contract law approach to product liability?
a. Consumers do not need complex contracts in order to protect themselves from all possible harms that products might cause.
b. The burden of proof has shifted from producers to consumers as consumers are allowed to assume that products are safe for ordinary use.
c. It has forced businesses to issue a disclaimer of liability and offer limited warranties to limit its liability.
d. Buyers have the responsibility to look out for their own interests and protect their own safety when buying a product.
Q:
A business will seek to limit its liability by explicitly disowning any promise or warranty by:
a. using the caveat venditor principle.
b. issuing a disclaimer of liability.
c. completely disclaiming the implied warranty of merchantability.
d. denying responsibility for the behavior of its suppliers.
Q:
The implied warranty of merchantability shifts the burden of proof from:
a. producers to consumers.
b. producers to suppliers.
c. consumers to producers.
d. suppliers to consumers.
Q:
Which of the following statements is correct about the implied warranty of merchantability?
a. It refers to the caveat emptor approach.
b. This standard shifts the burden of proof from producers to consumers.
c. Most courts allow a business to completely disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability.
d. Many businesses issue a disclaimer of liability, or offer an expressed and limited warranty to limit their liability.
Q:
In selling a product, a business offers tacit assurances that the product is reasonably suitable for its purpose. The law refers to this as the:
a. doctrine of caveat emptor.
b. implied warranty of merchantability.
c. doctrine of caveat lector.
d. implied warranty of productivity.
Q:
Identify the approach that assumes that every purchase involves the informed consent of the buyer and is ethically legitimate.
a. Res ipsa loquitur approach
b. Prima facie approach
c. Caveat emptor approach
d. Caveat venditor approach
Q:
The legal doctrine of strict liability is ethically controversial because:
a. it assumes informed consent of the buyer and therefore it is assumed to be ethically legitimate.
b. it allows consumers to assume that products are safe for use.
c. it holds that consumer demand depends upon what producers sell.
d. it holds a business accountable for paying damages whether or not it was at fault.
Q:
Greater consumption is likely to lead to unhappiness, a condition termed _____.
a. affluenza
b. caveat emptor
c. influenza
d. insomnia
Q:
A consumers consent to purchase a product is not informed if that consumer is:
a. unwilling to listen to the product details from the sales person.
b. injured after using the product and filed a product liability suit.
c. asked to buy a product without a warranty.
d. being misled or deceived about the product.
Q:
While approaching an ethical issue in marketing, the utilitarian tradition would want to know:
a. the degree to which individuals freely participate in an exchange.
b. the degree to which the transaction provided actual as opposed to merely apparent benefits.
c. about other values that are affected by the exchange.
d. about the personal characters of the parties that are involved in the exchange.