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Q:
In recording respondents' reactions, the respondent is usually asked to compare the new product with another product, say, the leader or the one currently being used, or both. In this case, _____ score is used.
A. descriptive information
B. a standard
C. a preference
D. like/dislike data
Q:
Batch product should be used alone only if:
A. information about a pilot plant is not available.
B. the production process is prohibitively expensive.
C. testers prefer comparative figures.
D. testers prefer absolute figures.
Q:
If a firm plans to use only one type of use testing, products selected for testing should preferably be drawn from _____.
A. a batch
B. a laboratory
C. a pilot plant
D. final production
Q:
Which of the following tests is the most sensitive?
A. Simultaneous form of paired comparison test
B. Sequential monadic test
C. Singular test
D. Side by side monadic test
Q:
In a _____ test, use of the new test product is interspersed with that of a competitive product.
A. monadic
B. paired comparison
C. sequential monadic
D. triangular comparison
Q:
In a _____ test, which is especially common for services, a respondent tests a single new product for a period of time.
A. monadic
B. blind
C. paired comparison
D. triangular comparison
Q:
Alton Inc. requires competitive comparisons in testing its potential product. The firm should use _____.
A. blind tests
B. beta tests
C. copy tests
D. gamma tests
Q:
In the context of product use testing, a degree of explanation called _______, includes just the information the customer will get when actually buying the product later.
A. commercial
B. identity disclosure
C. tagline
D. full explanation
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of mail methods over personal contacts?
A. They are less flexible.
B. They are costlier.
C. They take a longer period of time.
D. They are limited in terms of depth of questioning.
Q:
Identify the advantage of using personal contacts to reach user groups instead of mail.
A. More flexibility
B. Increased depth of questioning
C. Higher speed
D. Lower costs
Q:
Which of the following user groups are likely to give more careful consideration, in use testing, than other typical users and express more accurate reactions?
A. Lab personnel
B. Stakeholders
C. Employees
D. Experts
Q:
Which of the following is the first thing managers should decide in a product use test?
A. They should find out the target group.
B. They should analyze the product's marketing strategy.
C. They should decide on what needs to be learnt.
D. They should do a potential problem analysis.
Q:
The _____ stage of a case based research is followed by a preliminary beta test with end users in a real work environment.
A. commencement
B. investigation
C. development
D. initialization
Q:
The first stage of case-based research is _____ during which the developer interviews users to learn their expectations and how they will likely use the product.
A. alpha testing
B. pre-use sense testing
C. investigation
D. beta testing
Q:
Case-based research used by some software manufacturers:
A. is a very comprehensive form of product use testing that runs parallel to the software's development process.
B. begins with the investigation stage where users are encouraged to try early prototypes of the new software.
C. involves preliminary beta tests where developers interview users to learn their expectations.
D. provides knowledge from initial reactions of users to color, speed, durability, mechanical suitability, etc.
Q:
Which of the following is true of a gamma test?
A. It works best for firms which want to leapfrog competitors.
B. To pass this test, the new item must solve the customer problems completely.
C. The test happens in a series of quick steps spanning over a period of one week.
D. Firms which need to save time, like car makers, typically go for gamma testing.
Q:
The ideal product use test in which the item is put through its paces and thoroughly evaluated by the end user is called a(n) _____.
A. pre-use sense reaction
B. beta test
C. gamma test
D. alpha test
Q:
Alpha tests are generally conducted amongst:
A. regular customers outside the organization
B. employees of a firm
C. irregular customers outside the organization
D. employees of a competing firm
Q:
Beta tests are generally preceded by _____ tests.
A. gamma
B. alpha
C. pilot
D. copy
Q:
_____ are short-term use tests that evaluate a product at customer sites, to determine if the product works free of bugs.
A. Beta tests
B. Pre-use sense reactions
C. Early use experiences
D. Laboratory simulations
Q:
Which of the following key specifics indicate that a product is likely to work in the market?
A. High levels of ease of use
B. Presence of bugs
C. High complexities of customer needs
D. Presence of target costing
Q:
Identify the use test that provides knowledge from initial reactions of users to color, speed, durability, mechanical suitability, etc., of a new product.
A. Reactive beta test
B. Alpha test
C. Gamma test
D. Pre-use sense reaction
Q:
Firms that copy innovative products:
A. usually commit the innovator's mistakes as well.
B. tend to be the industry leaders.
C. typically have no imitators to worry about.
D. gain higher profits than the innovators due to price competition.
Q:
If use testing would result in the product being second (or even third) to market, most firms would:
A. rush through a user acceptability test.
B. accept the later entry in return for a guaranteed success.
C. opt for immediate marketing.
D. abandon the product as infeasible.
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with use testing?
A. The risk of a competitor obtaining the firm's product and entering the market first
B. The higher costs involved as compared to the loss of the earnings flow from a successful product
C. The high likelihood of choosing the wrong target group for the test
D. The inability of the test to follow a schematic system
Q:
Which of the following is an example of use testing?
A. Analyzing the expected return of a new product by the finance team
B. Technicians putting notebook computers in the hands of warehouse personnel
C. Copy testing the effectiveness of a product ad copy for baby diapers within an organization
D. Studying the attitude of consumers toward a new product idea before its launch
Q:
Which of the following is true of product testing?
A. Testing should be continued till a firm is satisfied that it has solved the problems expressed in the original protocol.
B. Use testing means testing a prototype under normal artificial conditions using control groups and focus groups.
C. Testing should be stopped once a firm creates a prototype of a product.
D. The risks and costs of use testing are usually high compared to the loss of the earnings flow from a successful product.
Q:
Makers of a building-block set for children puts kids in a focus group room and observes how the kids play with the set. This act is an example of _____ testing.
A. use
B. opportunity
C. concept
D. market
Q:
According to the "selling concept," the role of marketing was restricted to:
A. assisting in selling negotiations between a firm and a buyer.
B. customizing products as per the retail sellers' requirements.
C. conducting concept development.
D. selling the products that a firm makes.
Q:
Product use testing is also known as _____ testing.
A. prototype viability
B. concept
C. market acceptance
D. copy
Q:
A method for testing the end users' experience with a new item is called _____.
A. concept testing
B. prototype testing
C. field testing
D. copy testing
Q:
A firm using a full product use test is likely to get results more quickly than a firm using constructive evaluation.
Q:
In recording respondents' reactions, a five- or seven-point verbal rating scale is generally used to record basic like/dislike data.
Q:
A batch product should be used for testing alone only if the production process is prohibitively expensive.
Q:
A triangular comparison is sometimes called a staggered comparison.
Q:
In a monadic test, the respondent tests a single product for a period of time.
Q:
Knowing a new item's brand introduces halo-image effects, and may distort user reactions.
Q:
Sample size is primarily a function of what is being tested.
Q:
Even though beta testing is the ideal test, firms anxious to save time and money or to leapfrog competitors nevertheless opt to go with gamma testing.
Q:
Beta tests are designed to tell firms about meeting customer needs and solving problems.
Q:
An alpha test is a slow test of a very early version of a product with employees, where the product is nearly ready to release to customers.
Q:
Beta tests are primarily designed to tell if original customer needs have been met.
Q:
Initial reactions of product users are important, especially on service products.
Q:
Firms that simply copy innovative products gain high profits due to price competition.
Q:
A feature of use testing is that the prototype being tested is evaluated under normal operating conditions.
Q:
It is enough for firms to follow the "selling concept" in order to stay competitive.
Q:
Ideally, collaboration between functional areas results in _____.
A. competition
B. synergy
C. dysfunctional conflict
D. functional loyalty
Q:
A culture of _____ will help firms harness creativity, share information among departments, encourage growth of intellectual capital, and get more efficient in new product development.
A. functional discipline
B. secrecy
C. collaboration
D. departmental loyalty
Q:
Which of the following is a competency tied to radical innovation that is responsible for creating, recognizing, and articulating radical innovation opportunities?
A. Discovery
B. Incubation
C. Acceleration
D. Projectization
Q:
Identify the new products organization option where there is recognition of the occasional need for stronger project push, projectization is high, and team people are project people first and functional people second.
A. Departmental matrix option
B. Balanced matrix option
C. Functional matrix option
D. Project matrix option
Q:
In firms that have adopted a venture approach to organizational structure, _____.
A. team members think like functional specialists, and their bosses back in the departments win most of the face-offs
B. projectization is low, and team members are functional people first and project people second
C. both functional and project views are criticalneither ongoing business nor the new product should be the driver
D. projectization is the highest, and team members are pulled out of their departments and put to work full time on the project
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding the venture approach to organizational structure?
A. It involves the lowest degree of projectization.
B. Functional area managers are strong and can dominate the project leader.
C. The venture is typically kept in the regular organization.
D. It is most useful for new-to-the-firm products.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding the functional matrix organizational structure?
A. In the functional matrix structure, team people are project people first and functional people second.
B. In the functional matrix structure, both functional and project views are critical.
C. The functional matrix structure involves the lowest degree of projectization.
D. The functional matrix structure is the most useful for new-to-the-world products.
Q:
Higher projectization is preferred when:
A. not much innovation is required.
B. product improvements are to be made.
C. speed to market is critical.
D. the work involves the present line of products.
Q:
In the context of the competencies tied to radical innovation, _____ refer to the process of transitioning the radical opportunity into a business proposal.
A. incubation
B. acceleration
C. discovery
D. projectization
Q:
The most heavyweight of the three matrix structures is the:
A. project matrix structure.
B. functional matrix structure.
C. balanced matrix structure.
D. departmental matrix structure.
Q:
Which of the following is true of the balanced matrix option?
A. The balanced matrix option is the most lightweight of the different types of matrix structures.
B. The balanced matrix option extends projectization to its ultimate and is most useful for new-to-the-world products.
C. In the balanced matrix option, both functional and project views are critical.
D. In the balanced matrix option, team members are totally oriented to their functions or departments, and not to the project.
Q:
Which of the following organizational options exhibits the highest degree of projectization?
A. The functional option
B. The functional matrix option
C. The balanced matrix option
D. The venture option
Q:
In the _____, both functional and project views are criticalneither ongoing business nor the new product should be the driver.
A. functional option
B. balanced matrix option
C. venture option
D. project matrix option
Q:
A think-tank environment, designed to identify new ideas or solutions to new product-related problems, is an example of a _____.
A. project matrix option
B. balanced matrix option
C. functional option
D. venture option
Q:
Which of the following organizational options offers the least project focus?
A. Functional option
B. Functional matrix option
C. Balanced matrix option
D. Venture option
Q:
In which of the following organizational options does the project manager have the least amount of power?
A. Project matrix option
B. Venture option
C. Functional matrix option
D. Functional option
Q:
In a functional organization structure, _____.
A. team members are informed about key issues, and communication is comparatively easy
B. the work is high risk and mainly involves the development of new-to-the-world products
C. most of the power leans toward the project manager
D. team people are project people first and functional people second
Q:
GDTs use e-mail and phone to discuss design changes, but these tools are limited in that team members cannot work easily with three-dimensional models.
Q:
Virtual teams can meet in synchronous or asynchronous mode.
Q:
For risky projects, rewards tied to the project's profit outcome tend to enhance performance.
Q:
Most innovative firms generally follow a dual ladder system.
Q:
Functional areas tend to focus more on company goals than their own goals.
Q:
Dysfunctional conflict management styles such as withdrawal are better at fostering a positive environment for innovation than integrative styles such as forcing a solution.
Q:
Nodes refer to how people important to a project are reached and what important ties they have to others in the network.
Q:
A network consists of nodes, links, and operating relationships.
Q:
A sponsor is lower up in the corporate ladder and is supported by a product champion.
Q:
A product champion's role is to maintain corporate hierarchy.
Q:
Isolates, as a result of their exceptional technical expertise, are usually the most productive members of a new products team.
Q:
In the context of building a team, the term "empowerment" is synonymous with delegation.
Q:
Collaboration is an intense and complex form of integration that will produce synergy among functional areas.
Q:
If product development entails only minor variations to a standard product, higher projectization is the preferred option.
Q:
Lower the projectization, the more the power leans toward the project manager.
Q:
Discuss the various problems associated with globally dispersed teams.
Q:
What are the various conflict management styles?