Q&A Hero

Q: When you're posting comments on social media, A) don't worry about the details of spelling and punctuation. B) exercise your free-speech rights by ranting and raving at length. C) promote your products and services aggressively. D) provide short "chunks" of information that can help others who visit the site.

Q: An effective perception checking statement a. tends to have a better chance of working in a low-context culture. b. requires that your words match your behavior. c. doesn"t always require 3 parts. d. all of the above.

Q: Using "teasers" in electronic media as a way to pull readers or listeners into a story or other document is A) unethical and should always be avoided. B) appropriate only when large purchases are not involved. C) acceptable, as long as the payoff is valuable and legitimate. D) never appropriate for microblogging sites.

Q: Just recognizing the other person isn"t enough to be considered confirming.

Q: Despite your numerous emails and voicemail messages, a normally dependable vendor has not responded to your important question. Which of the following would be a sensible next step? A) Consider sending a printed message. B) Broadcast "high-priority" or "urgent" emails at ten-minute intervals. C) Use social media to vent your frustrations with the vendor. D) Use IM to bombard the vendor until he responds.

Q: The theory that describes the different ways we listen (mindfully or mindlessly) is called __________. a. selectivity theory b. dual-process theory c. listening fidelity d. unconditional positive regard e. none of the above

Q: When it comes to writing messages in today's business environment, A) printed messages are obsolete. B) printed messages are still preferred for formal correspondence or a court of law. C) email has completely replaced printed messages for all internal communication. D) hard-copy messages are used primarily for delivering negative news.

Q: Which of the following is an accurate statement from the "Swearing at Work" reading? a. Hearers who are surprised by a speaker's swearing are likely to deem the person as incompetent. b. Swearing can express emotional intensity. c. Swearing can be a term of endearment. d. Not swearing can violate the norms of some organizations. e. All of the above are accurate statements.

Q: Marketers can use ________ to link the virtual world of online social networking with the physical world of retail stores. A) near-field collaboration B) location-based social networking C) rapid-response enumeration D) cloud-based social monetization

Q: Armando made a poor first impression on Bianca as he first arrived, so throughout their evening date, despite his pleasant behavior, Bianca continued to see him in an unfavorable light due to a. her feelings of empathy. b. the halo effect. c. her punctuation of the events of the evening. d. the narrative of the date.

Q: When evaluating the work of others, you should A) make sure you understand the writer's intent before you begin suggesting or making changes. B) talk with the writer about his or her intent only after you suggest changes, since this is a good way to test the effectiveness of the document. C) avoid talking with the writer about the document, since other readers may not have that opportunity. D) compare the other person's writing style with your own, and if yours is better, rewrite the document in your own style.

Q: INSTRUCTIONS: Match each of the statements below with the element of the communication model it illustrates most clearly. a. external noise b. environment c. channel d. decoding e. psychological noise

Q: When reviewing your document for content, you should be concerned with A) grammar and usage. B) punctuation and spelling. C) the accuracy and relevance of the information. D) style and tone.

Q: Tangential responses are one type of disconfirming message.

Q: When you need to revise a long, complex document, A) start the process as soon as you've finished your first draft. B) start by focusing on misspelled words and grammar errors. C) save time by multitasking while you're revising the document. D) try to put your draft aside for a couple of days before you start.

Q: "Don"t worry about it" is an example of what type of "cold comfort" message? a. denying others the right to their feelings b. minimizing the significance of the situation c. focusing on "˜then and there" rather than "˜here and now" d. casting judgment e. none of these answers are correct

Q: In business communication, the ________ of a message usually have the greatest impact on the readers. A) body paragraphs B) appendix sections C) topics and subtopics D) beginning and ending sections

Q: The Star Wars character, Yoda, is following a different set of __________ rules when he says things like "the dark side are they." a. pragmatic b. semantic c. syntactic d. all of the above e. none of the above

Q: When you begin the ________, focus your attention on content, organization, style, and tone. A) production process B) editing process C) revision process D) research process

Q: Empathy is related to perception in that a. the more perceptive you are, the less empathetic you need be. b. the more perceptive you are, the easier it is to forget to be empathetic. c. empathy is facilitated by trying to perceive things from the other person's point of view. d. empathy and perception are both a result of self-fulfilling prophecies.

Q: Regarding the three-step writing process, all of the following except ________ are important elements of the completing step. A) proofreading the message B) revising the message C) forecasting the message D) producing the message

Q: INSTRUCTIONS: Match each of the statements below with the element of the communication model it illustrates most clearly. a. external noise b. environment c. channel d. decoding e. psychological noise

Q: The ________ of a message involves the total effect of elements such as page or screen design, typography, and graphics. A) resonance B) semantic structure C) production quality D) information value

Q: Stating your intentions is an important element of an assertive message.

Q: Which of the following design elements would be the easiest to measure objectively? A) Paying attention to the details of design B) Balancing the various elements on a page C) Exercising restraint when applying design elements D) Using margins, typeface, type size, and spacing consistently

Q: Once a progressive spiral has been established in a relationship, it is likely to continue indefinitely.

Q: Businesspeople who compose messages for mobile devices should A) keep formats simple. B) write complex paragraphs. C) fill in all on-screen white space. D) assume device compatibility.

Q: The residual message is a. the part of the message we respond to. b. the part of the message we understand. c. the part of the message we remember. d. usually stated first. e. usually stated last.

Q: All of the following except ________ will make your messages mobile friendly. A) thinking in small chunks B) avoiding the use of white space C) using simple formats D) considering horizontal and vertical layouts

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the meals involved in a professional interview? A) Professional interviews rarely include meals. B) Meals are social experiences, so you are not being assessed in any way during these gatherings. C) In some situations, your manners and table skills will be assessed. D) Small talk is inappropriate at business meals. E) Alcoholic beverages can be taken during the meal.

Q: Of the following statements, which is not characteristic of powerful speech? a. It can help candidates in job interviews. b. It often results in a favorable impression. c. It is always preferred over less powerful forms of speech. d. It gets different results in different cultures. e. All of these choices are characteristic of powerful speech.

Q: Specialty typefaces such as Bauhaus, Stencil, or Calligraphic are A) the default typeface for routine business messages. B) easy to read in long blocks of text. C) rarely used in business communication. D) preferred for highly formal business messages.

Q: You are participating in a panel interview with five interviewers. Which of the following would convey professionalism in this setting? A) slouching in your seat with a blank expression on your face B) making and maintaining eye contact with just your questioner when answering a question C) admitting that you don't understand an acronym that was used and asking for clarification D) making a joke about a political scandal you read about in the paper that morning E) continuing a discussion an interviewer initiated complaining about the infrastructure at the company

Q: What's missing from this perception check? "When you didn"t call me when you said you would, I thought you might have forgotten or were mad at me. What happened?" a. It doesn"t describe behavior. b. It has only one interpretation. c. It doesn"t request clarification. d. It is too wordy. e. Nothing is missing from this perception check.

Q: Explain why editing for conciseness is important, then list the four steps it involves.

Q: Which of the following is a positive nonverbal gesture? A) using moderate hand movements B) having a blank expression on your face C) staring D) slouching down in your chair E) looking at your phone

Q: Which of the following is a channel for communication? a. touching b. writing c. gesturing d. talking e. all of the above

Q: Explain the steps involved in editing documents for clarity.

Q: At an interview, which of the following is a negative nonverbal gesture? A) smiling B) maintaining eye contact C) leaning forward slightly D) tapping your foot E) sitting up straight

Q: Defensiveness is often a self-perpetuating cycle.

Q: Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate redundancies: "The engineers collaborated together in order to produce the uniquely original final outcomes of their research."

Q: Dara just finished her interview. While she feels that she did a good job overall, she thinks that she may have made a mistake when she was introduced to the panel. Which of Dara's actions is most likely to be problematic? A) Dara used people's names when she met them to personalize the conversation. B) Dara referred to people by their last names until they indicated their first names. C) Dara shook hands with just the key decision makers on the panel. D) Dara shook hands with a firm, solid grip. E) Dara helped herself remember people's names by using them when she met them.

Q: All of the following are reasons why it's impossible to listen well all the time except a. message overload. b. rapid thought. c. lack of training. d. faulty assumptions. e. message importance.

Q: Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate the unnecessary phrases: "In view of the fact that the customer service department is closed, we do not have the capability of offering refunds until such a time as they reopen."

Q: Which of the following is true about the impression you present by bringing printouts of the company website, or a prepared list of questions to ask the interviewer? A) It makes you look like a professional who is ready to work. B) It is evidence of the fact that you are not prepared. C) It makes you look like you're showing off your knowledge. D) It makes you look too eager. E) It shows you will be inactive during in the interview.

Q: Communication researchers call the process of adapting one's speech style to match that of others a. identity. b. convergence. c. divergence. d. semanticism. e. agreement.

Q: Briefly describe two strategies for clarifying sentence structure.

Q: Which of the following must be avoided on an interview day? A) You should present yourself in the reception area a minute or two after your appointment time, so as not to appear too eager. B) If time permits, you should use the restroom prior to your interview. C) It's a good idea to determine in advance how long it will take you to get to the interview location, so you can plan an appropriate departure time. D) If you arrive more than 10 minutes early, you should wait outside the reception area, so you don't make the interviewer feel obligated to meet with you ahead of schedule. E) You should enter the reception area about 10 minutes before your scheduled interview appointment.

Q: What's missing from this perception check? "When I saw you having lunch with Emily, I figured you liked her more than me. What's going on?" a. It doesn"t describe behavior. b. It has only one interpretation. c. It doesn"t request clarification. d. It is too wordy. e. Nothing is missing from this perception check.

Q: Rewrite the following sentence to avoid camouflaged verbs: "The customer will ultimately make a determination about whether a purchase will occur."

Q: Lisa wants to learn about the corporate culture of the company where she is going to appear for an interview. Which of the following must be avoided by Lisa while trying to understand the company's corporate culture? A) directly asking employees how they define it B) noticing the photos of people the company chooses to display in their annual report C) observing how employees interact with each other D) paying attention to what happens during group or action interviews E) looking at how people dress

Q: When Ernesta realizes during an office meeting that she's interrupted a co-worker twice, she demonstrates the skill of a. empathy. b. self-monitoring. c. cognitive complexity. d. affinity. e. metacommunication.

Q: Rewrite the following sentence to improve clarity and avoid the long noun sequence: "The financial estimates and accounting consulting firm will be closed next week."

Q: Which of the following is true about corporate culture? A) It is reflected in the company's atmosphere, attitudes, values and behaviors. B) Corporate culture of a company cannot be assessed during an interview with the company because the interview gives you a very short time period which is not sufficient for assessing the culture. C) Corporate culture is typically reflected in the profits of a company. D) Companies do not represent their corporate culture on their website. E) The way the employees dress has nothing to do with a company's corporate culture.

Q: Define a relational transgression and provide some examples of specific types of transgressions. Also, explain the four categories of transgressions.

Q: "Three AM in the morning" is an example of a redundancy.

Q: Amy is preparing for her first interview. She knows that the dress code at the company is business casual, but no one there has given her any instructions on how to dress for the meeting. Which of the following tips would help Amy dress appropriately for her interview? A) Amy should avoid wearing close-toed and closed-heel shoes. B) Amy should wear bright makeup. C) Amy should wear skirts that have either front or side slits. D) Amy should avoid sleeveless tops. E) Amy should ensure that her shoe color is much lighter than her suit.

Q: The story in your text about six men from Indostan illustrates a. the phenomenon called "culture shock." b. the way people tend to punctuate a series of events differently. c. the "Pillow Method" applied to resolve a problem. d. different interpretations depending on point of view. e. self-serving bias.

Q: Short words are generally more vivid and easier to read than long words.

Q: Steven is wearing a well-fitting black suit, a white shirt, and conservative blue tie for his interview. Which of the following must Steven avoid? A) make sure his shoes are polished and scuffed B) turn off his cell phone prior to the start of the interview C) cover any visible tattoos he might have D) apply aftershave or cologne prior to the interview E) carry a dark-colored portfolio, briefcase, or messenger bag

Q: Which of the following would not be considered a co-culture? a. senior citizen b. a person who uses a wheel chair c. construction worker d. Muslim e. all of the above are considered co-cultures

Q: When you're using digital media to write a message, you don't need to worry about grammar, spelling, or clarity.

Q: Amy is preparing for her first interview. She knows that the dress code at the company is business casual, but no one there has given her any instructions on how to dress for the meeting. Amy asks you to help her decide what she should wear. Which of the following would be the best advice to give her? A) Amy should strive to express her personality through clothing and accessories. B) Amy may safely assume that casual attire is appropriate for the interview. C) Amy should wear a bold accessory like a loud patterned scarf or distinct piece of jewelry. D) Amy's interview outfit should be a set rather than a mixed-matched top and bottom. E) Amy should avoid wearing close-toed and closed-heel shoes.

Q: Describe what you believe to be your primary conflict style, and discuss its effectiveness. If necessary, suggest alternatives, and explain your reasoning.

Q: To increase the sophistication of your message, make liberal use of references such as "the latter," "the former," "the aforementioned," and "as mentioned above."

Q: Which of the following is an appropriate tip to be followed by men while dressing for an interview? A) Ensure that your belt is in contrast with your shoes. B) Wear both belt and suspenders. C) Ensure that your shoes are much lighter than your suit. D) Avoid wearing any jewelry other than a watch and a wedding ring or class ring. E) Avoid wearing dark colored shoes.

Q: Describe the communication patterns in your own or another family. In your opinion, how effective are these patterns? What can be done to make communication more effective and/or maintain the current level of effectiveness?

Q: The subject and predicate of a sentence should be kept as close together as possible.

Q: The business casual dress code ________. A) is considered appropriate for all interviewing situations B) involves three-piece suits for men and dresses for women C) is typically used in those companies that work in the field of financial or legal management D) was historically the norm but is not used anymore E) includes options for women like slacks, skirts, dresses, blouses and sweaters

Q: Which of the following is the best helping paraphrase response to the following statements? "I can"t stand that class! The lectures are a waste of time, and the tests are full of nitpicking questions. I"m not learning anything." a. "Sounds like you"re fed up with the class." b. "Sounds like you"re thinking about dropping the class." c. "Sounds like the class has nit-picking tests and is a waste of time." d. "Sounds like you resent spending so much time on information you don"t consider useful." e. "Sounds like you"re fed up with school."

Q: "The qualification of the runner in the race took one hour" is an example of a sentence with a camouflaged verb.

Q: When an interviewer asks you what questions you have, ________. A) not having any demonstrates a thorough understanding of the job and all that it entails B) you should ask a minimum of ten questions that demonstrate your interest in the job C) you should avoid asking questions about health insurance or the retirement plan as they are inappropriate at this stage D) you should ask questions about where company headquarters are located and how many employees they have because these questions demonstrate your interest in the company E) avoid asking about next steps until the interviewer brings them up

Q: A culture is unavoidably shaped and reflected by the language its members speak. This concept is a. high-context culture. b. low-context culture. c. cultural anthropology. d. cognitive determinism. e. linguistic relativism.

Q: You can improve the clarity of your messages if you break up overly long sentences into shorter sentences.

Q: Which of the following is an appropriate question for employers to ask job applicants? A) What is your religion? B) What is your age? C) Are you married? D) Do you have children? E) Do you have a physical condition that would prevent you from fulfilling the requirements of the job?

Q: The Pillow Method is designed to a. persuade someone to accept your viewpoint. b. settle a dispute. c. minimize an issue. d. gain insight into another's viewpoint. e. punctuate the cause and effect of an argument.

Q: Doing all of the following except ________ will improve the message's readability. A) using a mix of short, medium, and long sentences B) using bulleted and numbered lists to emphasize key points C) using headings and subheadings to make the document easy to skim D) making sure that the information is accurate, relevant, and sufficient

Q: ________ questions are designed to determine how you would make decisions, solve problems, or respond to stressful situations. A) Action B) Behavioral C) STAR D) Demographic E) Simulated

Q: Which is an example of "psychological noise" as defined in your text? a. the sound of a lawn mower just outside your window b. the smell of smoke drifting into the room you are in c. feeling embarrassed about a mistake you made d. a light flickering on and off during a lecture e. feeling tired in a meeting

Q: Word combinations such as basic fundamentals, anonymous stranger, and future plans are examples of A) predicates. B) redundancies. C) squinting modifiers. D) camouflaged verbs.