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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Which of the following cells is NOT haploid?
a. secondary spermatocyte
b. sperm
c. primary oocyte
d. spermatids
e. polar bodies
Q:
Which of the following will NOT develop into one or more gametes?
a. spermatogonium
b. polar bodies
c. primary oocyte
d. spermatid
e. secondary spermatocyte
Q:
Gamete formation is
a. the result of the process of mitosis.
b. the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
c. the formation of sex cells.
d. the fusion of gametes.
e. a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true of human chromosomes?
a. The haploid number is 23.
b. The diploid number is 46.
c. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes.
d. Human gametes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes.
e. Human gametes end up with one of each type of 23 chromosomes.
Q:
Chromosome segregation in metaphase I refers to which of the following statements?a. The position where crossing over occurs is random.b. The pole that any one chromosome moves toward is completely independent of the movement of the other 45 chromosomes in humans.c. Either partner of a homologous pair of chromosomes may end up at either spindle pole.d. The sperm that fertilizes the egg is selected at random.e. None of these refer to independent assortment.
Q:
The illustration shows one possible outcome of the random alignment of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I. How many other possible arrangements exist?a. 0b. 1c. 2d. 3e. 4
Q:
If a diploid organism has a genome consisting of 4 pairs of chromosomes, it can produce ____ different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes (disregarding crossing over).a. 4b. 8c. 12d. 16e. 32
Q:
Which of the following is TRUE at the end of telophase I in corn (20 chromosomes)?
a. Each cell has 10 chromosomes.
b. Each chromosome is double-stranded.
c. Centromeres connect sister chromatids.
d. Each cell has 10 chromosomes, and each chromosome is double-stranded.
e. Each cell has 10 chromosomes, each chromosome is double-stranded, and centromeres connect sister chromatids.
Q:
If a child more strongly resembles one parent's physical traits than the other parent's, the explanation could be due to chromosome movements during
a. anaphase II.
b. metaphase II.
c. prophase II.
d. anaphase I.
e. telophase I.
Q:
Crossing over
a. increases variability in gametes.
b. happens only once per homologue pair.
c. occurs between sister chromatids.
d. prevents genetic recombination.
e. is followed immediately by separation of each of the chromatids.
Q:
There are ____ molecules of DNA in a developing human sperm cell at the beginning of prophase I.
a. 92
b. 23
c. 46
d. half as many (as compared to somatic cells)
e. twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)
Q:
Major gene reshuffling takes place during
a. telophase I.
b. metaphase I.
c. anaphase I.
d. metaphase II.
e. anaphase II.
Q:
Which of the following does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis?
a. cytokinesis
b. pairing of homologues
c. formation of a bipolar spindle
d. crossing over
e. condensation of chromosomes
Q:
Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because
a. it produces new combinations of alleles on chromosomes.
b. homologous chromosomes must be separated into different daughter cells.
c. the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter cell must be halved.
d. homologous chromatids must be separated into different daughter cells.
e. all of these reasons are true.
Q:
Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during
a. metaphase I.
b. telophase I.
c. prophase II.
d. metaphase II.
e. anaphase II.
Q:
Anaphase
a. involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
b. is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
c. is initiated when the chromosomes begin to move apart.
d. results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
e. does all of these.
Q:
Crossing over
a. generally results in binary fission.
b. involves centrioles.
c. involves breakages and exchanges between sister chromatids.
d. results in new combinations of alleles being channeled into the daughter cells.
e. does all of these.
Q:
Crossing over occurs during
a. anaphase I.
b. metaphase II.
c. prophase I.
d. prophase II.
e. telophase II.
Q:
Meiosis typically results in the production of
a. two diploid cells.
b. four diploid cells.
c. four haploid cells.
d. two haploid cells.
e. one triploid cell.
Q:
During meiosis II,
a. cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells.
b. sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other.
c. homologous chromosomes pair.
d. homologous chromosomes separate.
e. sister chromatids exchange parts.
Q:
During prophase II,
a. a new bipolar spindle forms.
b. crossing over occurs.
c. chromosomes are single-stranded.
d. the cell is diploid.
e. the nuclear envelope re-forms.
Q:
The cell in this illustration is in ____.
a. prophase I.
b. metaphase I.
c. anaphase I.
d. prophase II.
e. anaphase II.
Q:
Chromatids are
a. attached at the centriole.
b. a pair of chromosomes, one from the mother and one from the father.
c. attached at their centromeres.
d. identical until crossing over occurs.
e. attached at their centromeres and are identical until crossing over occurs.
Q:
Duplicated chromosomes linked together at their centromeres at the beginning of meiosis are appropriately called what kind of chromatids?
a. mother
b. daughter
c. sister
d. homologous
e. haploid
Q:
The essence of meiosis is that
a. gametes receive one copy of each member of each pair of homologous chromosomes.
b. diploid gametes are formed.
c. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes.
d. haploid gametes are formed.
e. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes, and haploid gametes are formed.
Q:
The following questions refer to the figures above.
Which of the letters in the above figure represents male structures?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. more than one of these
Q:
The following questions refer to the figures above.
Which of the letters in the above figure represents the ovaries where eggs are produced?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. more than one of these
Q:
The following questions refer to the figures above.
Which of the letters in the above figure represents the anther?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. none of these
Q:
Sexual reproduction
a. leads to uniform characteristics within a population.
b. results in new combinations of genetic traits.
c. creates genetic clones.
d. requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
e. produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
Q:
The above figure represents
a. individual genes from an asexual worm.
b. maternal chromosomes that are identical.
c. paternal chromosomes that are identical.
d. both maternal and paternal chromosomes.
e. none of these.
Q:
All of the following are TRUE of adaptive traits EXCEPT
a. they allow individuals to adjust to the environment.
b. they spread faster through populations of asexually reproducing organisms.
c. they spread faster through populations of sexually reproducing organisms.
d. variety results from mixing of the genetic traits.
e. all of these are true.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a. It offers an alternative adaptation in a changing environment.
b. It is adaptive in coevolution situations.
c. Half of a parent's genome is passed on.
d. The genetic variation it provides may be useful in the future.
e. It yields offspring with novel combinations of traits.
Q:
How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q:
Imagine a cell entered mitosis but was unable to make microtubules. What stage of mitosis would it be stuck in?
Q:
During which state of the cell cycle would a cell contain the least total amount of DNA?
Q:
The contractile ring that works with animal cells could not work with plant cells because __________.
Q:
The bipolar spindle is composed of __________.
Q:
The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
Q:
A metaphase plate forms in both plant and animal cells and is when the chromosomes __________.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Daughter nuclear membranes form.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Cytokinesis occurs after this phase of mitosis.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Sister chromatids joined at their centromeres are attached to spindle fibers.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
The microtubular spindle develops.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Centromeres break apart as the separated sister chromatids begin to move to opposite poles.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Spindle fibers first appear.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Condensation and shortening of chromosomes occurs.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
DNA replicates.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Genes replicate.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Chromosomes replicate.
Q:
The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed below. Select the correct phase for each of the following statements.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the equatorial plate.
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period prior to mitosis
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period in which metaphase occurs
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period commonly followed by cytokinesis
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period when interphase begins in a daughter cell
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period of nuclear division
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period after DNA is duplicated
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period of cell growth before DNA duplication
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Event that forms two daughter cytoplasmic masses
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Last part of interphase in the parent cell (i.e. when the cell is no longer in interphase)
Q:
The following phrases refer to the eukaryotic cell cycle. Select the single BEST choice for each phrase.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
e. cytokinesis
Period when DNA is duplicated
Q:
Anaphase
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Telophase
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Prophase
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Microtubules
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Metaphase
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Cytokinesis
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Chromatid
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Centromere
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Centriole
Choose the one most appropriate response for each.
a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
c. two sister chromatids are joined here
d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator
f. sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle poles
g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i. in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q:
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Checkpoint gene products that inhibit mitosis are called proto-oncogenes.
b. Metastasis is the invasion of cancer cells into normal tissue.
c. Malignant tumors differ from benign tumors in that their cells migrate.
d. Cancer cells have lost the ability to stop dividing.
e. The parent cell that started a cancer may have undergone a checkpoint gene mutation.
Q:
Which characteristic seems to be most uniquely correlated with metastasis?
a. loss of nuclear-cytoplasmic controls governing cell growth and division
b. changes in adhesion proteins on membrane surfaces
c. shrinkage of the cytoskeleton
d. increase in blood supply to the tumor
e. none of these
Q:
Cancer cells
a. have altered plasma membranes.
b. have a lessened ability to attach to other cells.
c. divide to produce high densities of cells.
d. show an amplified reliance on glycolysis.
e. exhibit all of these.
Q:
When cells are not responding to normal controls over growth and division, they form a tissue mass known as a
a. metastasis.
b. malignancy.
c. tumor.
d. carcinogen.
e. nucleosome.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about the enzyme telomerase?
a. It can re-establish telomere length.
b. It is found in stem cells.
c. It is responsible for telomere shortening.
d. It may slow the aging process.
e. It is highly expressed in cancer cells.
Q:
Dolly, the cloned sheep, had telomeres that:
a. Were unusually short.
b. Were unusually long.
c. Got longer with each cell division.
d. Did not change in length.
e. Perfectly normal.
Q:
Which of the following is not true of telomeres?
a. The have the sequence TTAGGG.
b. They are at the ends of chromosomes.
c. Their sequence is actively transcribed.
d. They shorten by 100 bases with each round of cell replication.
e. They shorten from the action of DNA polymerase.
Q:
This illustration shows
a. cytoplasmic division in an animal cell.
b. a contractile ring mechanism.
c. how chromosomes are dragged to the poles.
d. cytoplasmic division in an animal cell and a contractile ring mechanism.
e. cytoplasmic division in an animal cell and how chromosomes are dragged to the poles.
Q:
Cytoplasmic division in animal cells involves all EXCEPT
a. formation of a cell plate.
b. a contractile ring mechanism.
c. a deepening cleavage furrow.
d. a ring of actin filaments under the plasma membrane at the equator.
e. ATP.
Q:
The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during
a. prokaryotic fission.
b. mitosis.
c. meiosis.
d. cytokinesis.
e. karyokinesis.
Q:
Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis? I.
metaphase II.
telophase III.
prophase IV.
anaphase a. I, III, IV, II
b. I, II, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. IV, I, III, II
e. III, IV, I, II