Q&A Hero

Q: During a race such as a marathon, the skeletal muscle cells in your legs use a lot of energy to continually contract and power your muscles. What organelle is most likely abundant in skeletal muscle cells? A) mitochondria B) Golgi apparatus C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Q: Cells in the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormone (a polymer of amino acids) that helps to regulate metabolism. What organelle is most likely abundant in cells of the thyroid gland? A) mitochondria B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) free ribosomes D) lysosomes

Q: Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ________. A) cell wall and a contractile vacuole B) cell wall and a central vacuole C) nucleus and a cell wall D) nucleus and a contractile vacuole

Q: In plant cells, ________ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons. A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) lysosomes D) central vacuoles

Q: A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ________. A) in a marine environment B) within the cells of another organism C) in fresh water D) in ice

Q: Vacuoles are ________. A) membranous sacs B) manufactured by ribosomes C) composed of microtubules D) found only in plant cells

Q: Tay-Sachs disease results from ________ lacking a specific type of lipid-digesting enzyme. A) the Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum

Q: If a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ________. A) shrivel B) divide into two cells C) digest itself D) need to manufacture more lysosomes

Q: Lysosomes are responsible for ________. A) lipid synthesis B) cellular respiration C) digestion of organic matter inside the cell D) protein synthesis

Q: Which of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company? A) the Golgi apparatus B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) the nucleolus

Q: Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) digestion of organic matter inside the cell B) protein modification C) drug detoxification D) cell respiration

Q: What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus? A) transport proteins B) central vacuole C) transport vesicles D) nucleolus

Q: Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ________. A) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification B) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification C) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and storage of genetic information

Q: Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ________ cells. A) brain B) liver C) intestinal D) muscle

Q: A hormone that will be secreted from a cell is manufactured by ribosomes ________. A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum B) attached to the Golgi apparatus C) attached to the plasma membrane D) inside the nucleus

Q: The endomembrane system includes ________. A) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus, nucleolus, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

Q: Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ________. A) mRNA B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) DNA D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Q: Where does protein synthesis take place? A) in the nucleolus B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) on ribosomes D) in the nucleus

Q: Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell, whereas other ribosomes ________. A) make proteins inside the nucleus B) are found on the plasma membrane C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) are attached to the outside of the nucleus

Q: Which of the following structures manufactures the components of ribosomes? A) nucleus B) cytoplasm C) endoplasmic reticulum D) nucleolus

Q: Most human cells contain ________ chromosomes. A) 36 B) 46 C) 2 D) 23

Q: The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ________. A) nucleoli B) RNA C) chromatin D) ribosomes

Q: The nuclear envelope is composed of ________. A) chromatin B) DNA C) a double membrane D) carbohydrates

Q: ________ store the information necessary to produce proteins. A) Lysosomes B) Genes C) Ribosomes D) Carbohydrates

Q: The extracellular matrix of animal cells ________. A) protects and support cells B) provides avenues for the exchange of DNA C) is a warehouse for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates D) is primarily a site of dead matter and waste materials

Q: The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ________. A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane B) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane C) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane D) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure

Q: When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ________. A) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water B) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water C) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails D) are both fluid and mosaic

Q: ________ are the major lipids of plasma membranes. A) Steroids B) Fatty acids C) Starches D) Phospholipids

Q: Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane? A) regulate the traffic of chemicals in and out of the cell B) regulate the production of lipids in the cell C) regulate the production of DNA in and out of the nucleus D) regulate the production of proteins in the cell

Q: You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall. Therefore, you conclude that it is likely to be a(n) ________ cell. A) prokaryotic B) animal C) bacterial D) plant

Q: In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane? A) cytoplasm B) phospholipid bilayer C) nucleoid D) chloroplast

Q: One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ________ prokaryotic cells. A) have DNA, which is lacking in B) have membrane-enclosed structures called organelles, which are lacking in C) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in D) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in

Q: When using a microscope to view cells you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cells lack nuclei; therefore, you conclude that the cells must be a type of ________ cell. A) plant B) eukaryotic C) fungal D) prokaryotic

Q: Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but NOT eukaryotic cells? A) pili B) cell wall C) flagella D) DNA

Q: Which theory states that all living things are composed of cells? A) cell theory B) Hooke's rule C) evolutionary theory D) Mendel's law

Q: Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria? A) a drug that interferes with mitochondria function B) a drug that disrupts cell wall structure and function C) a drug that destroys the central vacuole D) a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes

Q: Please read the following scenario to answer the following questions. Cooking oils, such as olive oil, are largely made up of unsaturated fats. If you have ever heated cooking oil in a pan, you might have noticed that eventually the oil begins to smoke. The temperature when this occurs is called the "smoke point." At the smoke point, the fatty acids and glycerol molecules that make up the unsaturated fats in the oil begin to break down and form smoke. Different oils have different smoke points, and these smoke points depend on the molecular composition of the oils. Below is a table with data for four different types of cooking oils, including their smoke points (values are for 1 tablespoon each [15 ml]). Type of cooking oil Calories Saturated fat (g) Unsaturated fat (g) Smoke Point (âˆF) Olive 119 1.9 11.4 375 Avocado 124 1.6 11.9 520 Canola 120 1.0 12.0 400 Peanut 119 2.3 10.3 450 Which of the following statements about the data in the table is TRUE? A) Saturated fat content and smoke point are positively correlated (related to one another). B) There is a negative (inverse) correlation between unsaturated fat content and smoke point. C) You can use the saturated fat content of an oil to reliably predict the smoke point of an oil. D) Unsaturated fat content and smoke point are not correlated.

Q: Please read the following scenario to answer the following questions. Cooking oils, such as olive oil, are largely made up of unsaturated fats. If you have ever heated cooking oil in a pan, you might have noticed that eventually the oil begins to smoke. The temperature when this occurs is called the "smoke point." At the smoke point, the fatty acids and glycerol molecules that make up the unsaturated fats in the oil begin to break down and form smoke. Different oils have different smoke points, and these smoke points depend on the molecular composition of the oils. Below is a table with data for four different types of cooking oils, including their smoke points (values are for 1 tablespoon each [15 ml]). Type of cooking oil Calories Saturated fat (g) Unsaturated fat (g) Smoke Point (âˆF) Olive 119 1.9 11.4 375 Avocado 124 1.6 11.9 520 Canola 120 1.0 12.0 400 Peanut 119 2.3 10.3 450 Suppose that you wanted to conduct an experiment to determine the smoke points of the oils listed in the table. What would be the experiment that would give you the best information to determine which oil has the highest smoke point? A) Add some olive oil to a pan, heat it over a flame, and measure the temperature of the oil when it begins to smoke. Repeat for the other three oils. B) Mix all four oils in a pan, heat them over a flame, and measure the temperature of the oil mixture when it begins to smoke. C) Add some olive oil to a pan, heat it over a flame, and measure how long it takes for the oil to begin to smoke. Repeat for the other three oils. D) Mix all four oils in a pan, heat them over a flame, and measure how long it takes for the oil mixture to begin to smoke.

Q: Please read the following scenario to answer the following questions. While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving. The amount of carbohydrates in a food product is usually separated into two groups: 1) sugars, which refers only to mono- and disaccharides, and 2) fiber. Out of the 22 grams of total carbohydrates, there are 12 grams of sugars and 2 grams of fiber in the chocolate mint cookies. All of the following statements EXCEPT for one are true. Choose the exception. A) There are more mono- and disaccharides than cellulose in the cookies. B) There are 8 grams of carbohydrates in the cookies that are not monosaccharides, disaccharides, or fiber. C) The majority of the carbohydrates in the cookies will be able to be broken down via hydrolysis reactions when eaten. D) There are 6 grams of monosaccharides and 6 grams of disaccharides in the cookies.

Q: Please read the following scenario to answer the following questions. While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving. The manufacturer of the chocolate mint cookies changed the ingredients of its cookies. Each serving now has 1 gram of saturated fat (4 fewer grams), 4 grams of trans fat (4 more grams), 21 grams of carbohydrates (1 fewer gram), and 11 grams of protein (no change). Do you think that the manufacturer made these cookies healthier? A) No, because they now have less saturated fat. B) Yes, because they now have less saturated fat. C) Yes, because they now have fewer grams of carbohydrates. D) No, because they now have more grams of trans fat.

Q: Please read the following scenario to answer the following questions. While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving. Which cookies are less healthy? A) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat. B) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates. C) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat. D) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.

Q: Oleic acid is a fatty acid that occurs naturally in many animal and vegetable fats and oils. What can you tell about oleic acid just by looking at its structure? A) Oleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid. B) Oleic acid is a saturated fatty acid. C) Oleic acid is a trans fatty acid. D) Oleic acid is a hydrophilic fatty acid.

Q: The figure below shows ________. A) a single strand of RNA B) double-stranded RNA C) a single strand of DNA D) double-stranded DNA

Q: Examine the two sugars in the following figure. How do these two sugars compare? A) Glucose has more hydrogen. B) Glucose has more double bonds. C) They have the same formula but different structures. D) They are structurally identical in every way.

Q: The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life most likely arose in ________. A) populations that live in cold climates B) populations that live in wet climates C) cultures that keep dairy herds D) Native Americans

Q: A DNA molecule has the sequence AGTTCAACT. The equivalent RNA molecule would have the sequence ________. A) AGTTCAACT B) AGUUCAACU C) UGTTCUUCT D) UGUUCUUCU

Q: How does RNA differ from DNA? A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded. B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides. C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine. D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.

Q: If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the other strand? A) GACGTCA B) AGTACTG C) GTCATGA D) TCATGAC

Q: Which of the following is TRUE with regard to a DNA molecule? A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine. B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine. C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil. D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

Q: DNA nucleotides include ________. A) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine B) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine C) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil

Q: A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ________. A) gene B) protein C) nucleic acid D) enzyme

Q: Nucleic acids are polymers of ________ monomers. A) monosaccharide B) fatty acid C) DNA D) nucleotide

Q: Extremophilic bacteria are able to survive in hostile environments, including scalding hot water as well as springs and vents that reach temperatures over 100C. Researchers studying these bacteria measured the function of a protein from an extremophile bacterium at 100C, and they also measured the function of a similar protein from a human cell at 100C. Which of the following results do you think the researchers obtained? A) The bacterial protein functioned normally, whereas the human protein did not. B) The human protein functioned normally, whereas the bacterial protein did not. C) The bacterial protein and the human protein both functioned normally. D) Neither the human protein nor the bacterial protein functioned normally.

Q: A protein's function is most dependent on its ________. A) pH B) shape C) size D) weight

Q: What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds? A) dehydration B) hydrogenation C) hydrolysis D) glycolysis

Q: Amino acids include a side group as well as ________. A) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group B) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group C) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group

Q: Proteins are polymers constructed from ________ monomers. A) hydrocarbon B) amino acid C) nucleotide D) fatty acid

Q: Enzymes are ________. A) amino acids B) monosaccharides C) phospholipids D) proteins

Q: A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you to suspect that your friend has begun to take ________. A) amino acid supplements B) creatine C) protein powder D) an anabolic steroid

Q: ________ is a steroid. A) Butter B) Sucrose C) Amino acid D) Estrogen

Q: Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats? A) increased risk of infectious disease B) decreased risk of atherosclerosis C) increased risk of heart attack D) decreased risk of stroke

Q: A fat that is hydrogenated is ________. A) more unsaturated B) easier to digest C) more solid D) less likely to cause strokes

Q: Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats? A) beef B) salmon C) corn oil D) canola oil

Q: By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds? A) steroid B) triglyceride C) unsaturated D) saturated

Q: Saturated fats are saturated with ________. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D) oxygen

Q: What name is given to the following reaction?glycerol + 3 fatty acids -> triglyceride + 3 water moleculesA) glycolysisB) hydrolysisC) hydrogenationD) dehydration

Q: A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ________. A) prostaglandin B) nucleic acid C) steroid D) fat

Q: Sometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no cream or sugar, I notice a thin film floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ________ in my coffee!" A) hydrophilic substance B) hydrophobic substance C) disaccharide D) polysaccharide

Q: Which of the following is hydrophilic? A) cellulose B) testosterone C) butter D) cholesterol

Q: Cellulose is an example of ________. A) a polypeptide B) a steroid C) fiber D) fat

Q: Animals store carbohydrates as ________. A) cellulose B) glycogen C) starch D) maltose

Q: Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? A) glucose B) starch C) maltose D) sucrose

Q: For good health, it is important to include ________ in our diets. A) fructose B) monosaccharides C) disaccharides D) polysaccharides

Q: Table sugar is ________. A) glucose, a monosaccharide B) glucose, a disaccharide C) sucrose, a monosaccharide D) sucrose, a disaccharide

Q: In the following equation, lactose is a ________.galactose + glucose -> lactose + waterA) nucleic acidB) fatty acidC) disaccharideD) dipeptide

Q: Complete the equation:monosaccharide + monosaccharide -> ________ + waterA) disaccharideB) polypeptideC) polysaccharideD) fat

Q: Which of the following are isomers? A) glucose and fructose B) glucose and sucrose C) sucrose and glucose D) lactose and maltose

Q: Carbohydrates typically include ________. A) an NH2 group B) C, H, and O atoms C) N and S atoms D) a PO4 group

Q: What name is given to the following reaction?sucrose + water -> glucose + fructoseA) hydrogenationB) hydrolysisC) glycolysisD) dehydration

Q: What name is given to the following reaction?galactose + glucose -> lactose + waterA) hydrolysisB) hydrogenationC) glycolysisD) dehydration