Q&A Hero

Q: A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male? A) 25% B) 50% C) 33% D) 67%

Q: To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ________. A) expresses the dominant trait B) is homozygous recessive for that trait C) is homozygous dominant for that trait D) is heterozygous for that trait

Q: An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ________. A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance B) Mendel's law of independent assortment C) linkage D) Mendel's principle of segregation

Q: Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual? A) 1:2:1 B) 9:3:3:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1:1:1

Q: What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome? A) locus B) phenotype C) genotype D) allele

Q: Which of these crosses will produce only heterozygous offspring? A) AA aa B) AA Aa C) Aa Aa D) Aa aa

Q: An individual who is homozygous ________. A) expresses the dominant trait B) carries two different alleles for a gene C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene D) expresses the recessive trait

Q: In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples? A) DD B) Dd C) dd D) DI

Q: Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

Q: Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ________, and the allele for purple flowers is ________. A) heterozygotes... recessive B) heterozygotes... dominant C) homozygotes... recessive D) homozygotes... dominant

Q: Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes? A) 2:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 3:1

Q: According to Mendel's law of segregation, ________. A) two alleles segregate into each gamete B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele C) gametes have one allele copy for each gene D) gametes are diploid

Q: A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 F1 cross? A) 1:2:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 9:3:3:1

Q: A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why? A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele. B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow. C) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele. D) The alleles are codominant.

Q: Alleles are described as ________. A) homologous chromosomes B) environmental factors that affect gene expression C) alternate versions of a gene D) alternate phenotypes

Q: A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ________. A) purebred variety B) hybrid C) P generation D) F2 generation

Q: The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ________. A) cannot be cross-fertilized B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring

Q: Please read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty. If only some, but not all, of Amanda's somatic (body) cells had only one X chromosome, this could indicate that an error occurred ________. A) during mitosis leading to the sperm or egg that came together to form Amanda B) during meiosis in the first cell division of the original cell that was Amanda (the zygote) C) during meiosis which occurred in Amanda's ovaries D) during mitosis which occurred at a multicellular stage of Amanda's development

Q: Please read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty. What percentage of Amanda's gametes would likely have the normal number of chromosomes? A) zero B) 100 percent C) 50 percent D) 25 percent

Q: Please read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty. With respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ________. A) XYY B) XO C) XOY D) XX

Q: Please read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty. Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ________. A) independent assortment of chromosomes B) crossing over C) nondisjunction D) random fertilization

Q: Which of these could lead to the mistake evident in the karyotype? A) a failure of cytokinesis after meiosis I in gamete formation B) a nondisjunction in meiosis II in gamete formation C) crossing over in meiosis I in gamete formation D) fertilization by two sperm in zygote formation

Q: The karyotype above shows ________. A) abnormal sex chromosomes B) trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

Q: The 2n number for the cell depicted here is ________. A) one B) two C) four D) eight

Q: The above figure shows that ________. A) meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells B) fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells C) the human 2n number is 4 D) meiosis forms diploid gametes

Q: What is the chromosome number found in humans cells after meiosis I is completed? A) 46 autosomes B) 43 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes C) 22 autosomes and a sex chromosome D) 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

Q: This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ________. A) meiosis produces a diploid zygote B) meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells C) fertilization produces a haploid zygote D) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human

Q: As shown in the following figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ________. A) plant cells produce more daughter cells B) plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not C) animal cells produce more daughter cells D) animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not

Q: Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ________. A) RNA and protein B) DNA C) proteins D) DNA and histone proteins

Q: Which of these describes the type of reproduction that is most adaptive in a rapidly changing environment with many different parasitic diseases present? A) asexual reproduction because the currently successful genotypes can reproduce quickly B) asexual reproduction, because asexual reproduction uses less energy, which leaves more for each individual to adapt to the changing environment C) sexual reproduction because the diversity of genotypes increases the likelihood that there is one which can survive in a new environment D) sexual reproduction because this type of reproduction allows the production of a greater number of offspring thus providing more individuals to take advantage of any environmental challenges presented

Q: Sexual reproduction appears to be absent in bdelloid rotifers. Which of these, if found in this group, would bring into question the idea that they reproduce ONLY asexually? A) female rotifers with eggs B) significant differences of two different alleles among different populations (one population having mostly allele A and one having mostly a). C) cells in which meiosis occurs D) related groups (not bdelloid rotifers) which reproduce both sexually and asexually.

Q: How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?A) 2n + 1B) n + 1C) 2n -> 1D) n -> 1

Q: How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction? A) n + 1 or n - 1 B) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1 C) 2n - 1 only D) 2n + 1 or n - 1

Q: A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ________. A) sex B) Down syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) eye color

Q: Crossing over during prophase I results in ________. A) nondisjunction B) reciprocal translocation C) duplication D) genetic recombination

Q: For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible. A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 20

Q: Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father. B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles. C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles. D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole.

Q: Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Choose the exception. A) the events of meiosis I B) crossing over C) independent assortment D) the events of meiosis II

Q: One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ________. A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not B) mitosis produces more daughter cells for each division than meiosis C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

Q: Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ________ and in mitotic anaphase ________. A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell and sister chromatids separate

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does NOT occur in prophase II? A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell. B) Spindle formation occurs. C) The number of chromosomes doubles. D) Crossing over occurs.

Q: Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ________ cell(s). A) four haploid B) two diploid C) two haploid D) one diploid

Q: During metaphase I, ________. A) crossing over occurs B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) the nuclear envelope breaks up D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles

Q: How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) one-quarter as much B) four times as much C) one-half as much D) twice as much

Q: In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells. B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell. C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II. D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

Q: Sexual reproduction in humans ________. A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell B) produces a haploid individual C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote

Q: Chromosomes that do NOT determine the sex of an individual are called ________. A) homologous chromosomes B) nonhomologous chromosomes C) sex chromosomes D) autosomes

Q: What chromosomes belong to a normal human female? A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes

Q: What chromosomes belong to a normal human male? A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome

Q: Homologous chromosomes ________. A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics B) include only the autosomes C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent D) carry the same versions of all genes

Q: Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival? A) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet. B) Limit exercise. C) Seek early detection of tumors. D) Smoke only cigarettes.

Q: What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor? A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not. B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are. C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do. D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

Q: Cytokinesis typically begins during the ________ stage of mitosis. A) telophase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase

Q: A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ________. A) have less genetic material than it started with B) not have completed anaphase C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell D) have two nuclei

Q: During telophase, ________. A) the events of prophase are reversed B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) sister chromatids become separate chromosomes D) the nuclear envelope breaks up

Q: Which of these events occurs during anaphase? A) Sister chromatids become separate chromosomes. B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. C) The nuclear envelope reappears. D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.

Q: During metaphase, ________. A) the nuclear envelope breaks up B) sister chromatids separate C) centromeres divide D) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

Q: The CORRECT sequence of stages of mitosis is ________. A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Q: Which of the following is a stage of mitosis? A) cytokinesis B) telophase C) interphase D) DNA synthesis

Q: Which of the following occurs during prophase? A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell. B) The nuclear envelope forms. C) Sister chromatids separate. D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.

Q: The mitotic cell cycle results in the production of ________. A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information

Q: Which of the following occurs during interphase? A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled. B) Chromosome duplication occurs. C) Sister chromatids separate. D) The mitotic spindle forms.

Q: Sister chromatids are joined at the ________. A) centromere B) spindle C) centrosome D) centriole

Q: A duplicated chromosome consists of two ________. A) centromeres B) centrosomes C) genomes D) sister chromatids

Q: Chromatin consists of ________. A) DNA and protein B) RNA and protein C) protein only D) DNA only

Q: The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ________. A) nucleus B) centriole C) Golgi apparatus D) nucleolus

Q: Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) growth of a multicellular organism B) cell replacement C) production of sperm and eggs D) asexual reproduction

Q: A(n) ________ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually by parthenogenesis. A) cat B) human C) Komodo dragon D) mouse

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Shade-tolerant plants have many adaptations for living in areas of low light. Predict whether each of the following processes would be high or low in comparison with other plants and choose the answer that is most CORRECT. Density of stomata on leaves Leaf size Carbohydrate storage A) High, high, high B) High, high, low C) Low, high, high D) Low, high, low

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Shade-tolerant plants have many adaptations for living in areas of low light. Predict whether each of the following processes would be high or low in comparison with other plants and choose the answer that is most CORRECT. Net photosynthetic rate Chlorophyll per area of the leaf Electron transport chain rate A) high, high, high B) high, high low C) low, high, high D) low, high, low

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Some plant species require shaded conditions while other plant species require bright sunlight. Shade tolerance is best related to which of these characteristics? A) Different species of plants have different ratios of pigment molecules that utilize different wavelengths of light. B) Plant leaves without a protective coating are subject to sunburn. C) Some species of plants are able to produce sugar without ever having been exposed to sunlight. D) Some species of plants are consumers and do not need sunlight.

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Which wavelength of light is the LEAST useful to your plant's growth? A) 750 nm B) 650 nm C) 550 nm D) 500 nm

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Of the following, which wavelength is LEAST useful to your plants? A) 650 nm B) 450 nm C) 550 nm D) 400 nm

Q: Please use the following information to answer the following questions. You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species. From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows: Wavelengths Growth 400 nm 0.33 mm/day 450 nm 0.46 mm/day 500 nm 0.88 mm/day 550 nm 0.12 mm/day 600 nm 0.54 mm/day 650 nm 0.28 mm/day 700 nm 0.08 mm/day 750 nm 0.00 mm/day Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following questions: Which wavelength is best for your plants' growth? A) 650 nm B) 550 nm C) 500 nm D) 400 nm

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. The Calvin cycle is sometimes called the "dark reactions." Could it take place if a plant were grown in the dark continuously? A) No, because plants cannot take in CO2 without sunlight. B) No, because sunlight is needed to split water to provide NADH. C) Yes, because taking in carbon dioxide, the only outside input to the Calvin cycle, does not need sunlight. D) Yes, because plants have stored materials in their roots which can provide what the Calvin cycle needs.

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be TRUE? A) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less. B) No oxygen would be released by the plant. C) No sugar would be made by the plant. D) Only RuBP would be recycled.

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ________. A) G3P production B) oxidation of CO2 C) regeneration of RuBP D) sugar production

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ________ into ________. A) O2... G3P B) RuBP... O2 C) CO2... RuBP D) G3P... RuBP

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. One of the compounds that is a direct output of the Calvin cycle is ________. A) C6H12O6 B) NADPH C) G3P D) ATP

Q: Please refer to the following art to answer the following questions. How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose? A) one B) two C) three D) six