Q&A Hero

Q: The biological species concept cannot be applied to fossils. Which alternate approach to identifying species would be most useful for classifying fossil organisms? A) an approach based on use of reproductive barriers B) an approach based on genetic history C) an approach based on measurable physical traits D) an approach based on molecular biology

Q: The biological species concept cannot be applied to ________. A) fungi that live on land B) bacteria that reproduce only asexually C) complex plants that have flowers D) animals that use asexual and sexual reproduction

Q: When brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring. Why may they still be considered two distinct species? A) Wild populations of the two species have different geographic distributions. B) In the wild, members of one species prey upon members of the other species. C) Zoos are not natural environments. D) The two species look very different.

Q: Under the biological species concept, what criterion is used to assign populations of organisms to the same biological species? A) a very similar appearance B) being able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring C) responding to the environment in the same way D) having 99% of their genes in common

Q: Biological species consist of groups of ________. A) populations B) domains C) families D) genera

Q: Which of the following is the strongest piece of evidence for why some scientists believe that we are at the start of a sixth mass extinction? A) decrease in biodiversity B) decrease in fossil discoveries C) decrease in allopatric species D) decrease in hybrid fertility

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the questions that follow. In order to test the susceptibility of bacteria to an antibiotic, a common laboratory test called the Bauer-Kirby Disk Diffusion test is used. First, a petri dish (a shallow, circular, transparent dish with a flat lid) is partially filled with nutrient-enriched agar (a gelatinous material). The nutrients encourage growth of specific bacterial species. The agar is poured as liquid but then typically solidifies to a soft consistency. Once the agar is set, a "lawn" of bacteria is spread such that a thin layer covers the top of the agar. Antibiotics are then applied to the lawn in a small dose, often through small saturated paper disks. The dish is typically incubated for 2448 hours and then observed for susceptibility. If the antibiotic is effective, it will kill the bacteria and leave a clear area called the "zone of inhibition" due to inhibited bacterial growth. The area starts at the source of the antibiotic and radiates outward. Scientists measure the diameter of the zone and then compare it to an established "cutoff value" for a zone specific to antibiotic/organism combinations. A large zone of inhibition in comparison to the standard indicates susceptibility while a small or no zone indicates resistance. Consider the following image, and answer the questions that follow: After 1 year of widely prescribed use, reports surface that bacterial infections disappear for up to 2 weeks after taking the prescribed antibiotic but then reappear, sometimes worse than the first time. Which of the following explanations might the FDA use to defend their choice of antibiotic to treat the infection? A) Patients are not taking the antibiotic for the length of time prescribed and so selection for resistant bacteria that can survive a limited course of antibiotic is occurring. B) Stabilizing selection over the year has allowed for the bacteria to remain at a high level in patients' bodies. C) Patients' bodies are evolving over the year to create environments that are friendly to the growth of the bacteria. D) Sexual dimorphism allowed for larger bacteria cells to outcompete smaller ones, therefore enabling larger bacteria cells to continue to multiply.

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the questions that follow. In order to test the susceptibility of bacteria to an antibiotic, a common laboratory test called the Bauer-Kirby Disk Diffusion test is used. First, a petri dish (a shallow, circular, transparent dish with a flat lid) is partially filled with nutrient-enriched agar (a gelatinous material). The nutrients encourage growth of specific bacterial species. The agar is poured as liquid but then typically solidifies to a soft consistency. Once the agar is set, a "lawn" of bacteria is spread such that a thin layer covers the top of the agar. Antibiotics are then applied to the lawn in a small dose, often through small saturated paper disks. The dish is typically incubated for 2448 hours and then observed for susceptibility. If the antibiotic is effective, it will kill the bacteria and leave a clear area called the "zone of inhibition" due to inhibited bacterial growth. The area starts at the source of the antibiotic and radiates outward. Scientists measure the diameter of the zone and then compare it to an established "cutoff value" for a zone specific to antibiotic/organism combinations. A large zone of inhibition in comparison to the standard indicates susceptibility while a small or no zone indicates resistance. Consider the following image, and answer the questions that follow: After rigorous testing, the Federal Drug Administration (FDA) must decide which of the four antibiotics to approve to fight a bacterial infection that results in high fevers and localized rashes. Which antibiotic do you predict that the FDA scientists will likely approve? A) A B) C C) E D) F

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the questions that follow. In order to test the susceptibility of bacteria to an antibiotic, a common laboratory test called the Bauer-Kirby Disk Diffusion test is used. First, a petri dish (a shallow, circular, transparent dish with a flat lid) is partially filled with nutrient-enriched agar (a gelatinous material). The nutrients encourage growth of specific bacterial species. The agar is poured as liquid but then typically solidifies to a soft consistency. Once the agar is set, a "lawn" of bacteria is spread such that a thin layer covers the top of the agar. Antibiotics are then applied to the lawn in a small dose, often through small saturated paper disks. The dish is typically incubated for 2448 hours and then observed for susceptibility. If the antibiotic is effective, it will kill the bacteria and leave a clear area called the "zone of inhibition" due to inhibited bacterial growth. The area starts at the source of the antibiotic and radiates outward. Scientists measure the diameter of the zone and then compare it to an established "cutoff value" for a zone specific to antibiotic/organism combinations. A large zone of inhibition in comparison to the standard indicates susceptibility while a small or no zone indicates resistance. Consider the following image, and answer the questions that follow: What can you conclude about the susceptibility of the bacteria to the antibiotics? A) The bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotic A than antibiotic C. B) The bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotic D than antibiotic B. C) The bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotic C than antibiotic E. D) The bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotic D than antibiotic A.

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the following questions. Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines, and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction. Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease first identified in 1998 as a cause of massive amphibian deaths. In some severely impacted populations, a few individuals have survived, perhaps because of some natural resistance. If these resistant individuals continue to survive and prosper, new resistant populations might emerge. This would be an example of ________. A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) the founder effect D) sexual selection

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the following questions. Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines, and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction. When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that ________. A) artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution B) the founder effect becomes increasingly important C) gene flow between populations is reduced D) microevolution no longer occurs

Q: Read the following scenario to answer the following questions. Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines, and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction. Some biologists urge the collection of the few remaining individuals of some of the most threatened amphibian species in order to preserve them if they become extinct in the wild. If such captive-breeding programs could produce thousands of individuals from just a few of the remaining survivors, the species will still be threatened because of ________. A) a bottleneck effect B) directional selection C) mutations D) artificial selection

Q: The figure below shows what happens in insect populations when crops are sprayed with insecticides. This is an example of ________. A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) founder effect D) gene flow

Q: The figure below shows the percent of selected DNA sequences that match between a chimpanzee and other primates. These data support the hypothesis that ________. A) the chimpanzee's closest surviving relative is humans B) chimpanzees and gibbons are the most closely related C) orangutans are the primates least closely related to chimpanzees D) Old World monkeys and gibbons are the most closely related

Q: Examine the evolutionary tree below. This tree tells us that the amnion is found in ________. A) lungfishes and amphibians B) amphibians only C) mammals, lizards, and snakes only D) mammals, lizards, snakes, crocodiles, and birds

Q: Examine the relationships between the elephants in the figure below. Which one of the following pairs is most closely related? A) Deinotherium and Platybelodon B) Barytherium and Stegodon C) Loxodonta africana and Loxodonta cyclotis D) Mammut and Stegodon

Q: What leads paleontologists to hypothesize that whales evolved from wolf-like carnivores? A) molecular analysis of whale DNA B) observations of fossil teeth C) the presence of vestigial structures in both species D) mathematical analysis using the Hardy-Weinberg formula

Q: Which of the following is an example of sexual selection? A) Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics. B) Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck. C) Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails. D) Female butterflies have a higher survival rate than male butterflies.

Q: Which of the following examples results from stabilizing selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Q: Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation? A) directional selection B) mutation C) stabilizing selection D) diversifying selection

Q: Which of the following examples results from disruptive selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Q: Which of the following is an example that results from directional selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Q: What does evolutionary fitness measure? A) physical health B) longevity C) relative reproductive success D) population size

Q: Gene flow is accomplished by ________. A) migration B) sexual recombination C) mutation D) natural selection

Q: Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes) than the human population as a whole? A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) founder effect D) bottleneck effect

Q: The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ________. A) requires a small population B) is a type of natural selection C) can occur only on an oceanic island colony D) involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population

Q: After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population? A) The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population. B) The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection. C) The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population. D) The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

Q: Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift? A) Gene flow is absent. B) There is genetic variation. C) There is mutation. D) The population size is large.

Q: Genetic drift is the result of ________. A) natural selection B) chance C) a large gene pool D) environmental variation

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) The population is subject to natural selection. B) The population is not evolving. C) Genetic drift is occurring. D) Gene flow in and out of the population occurs.

Q: The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ________. A) mutation B) gene flow C) geographic isolation D) random fertilization

Q: The presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele. Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles. Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles. A) 32% B) 4% C) 64% D) 80%

Q: In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does 2pq represent? A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygous dominants

Q: In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent? A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygotes for one allele

Q: If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7 in a population with two alleles at a particular locus, what is the frequency of the alternate allele? A) 0.09 B) 0.21 C) 0.30 D) 0.42

Q: The total collection of alleles in a population at any one time makes up that population's ________. A) gene pool B) genotype C) heterozygote frequency D) allele frequency

Q: Which one of the following can create new alleles? A) natural selection B) sexual reproduction C) mutation D) genetic drift

Q: Which of the following is a population? A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts B) all of the termites that have ever lived C) all organisms living in your house D) the termites infesting your house

Q: Which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population. B) Natural selection works on nonheritable traits. C) Individuals evolve through natural selection. D) Individual organisms evolve structures that they need.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a requirement of natural selection? A) differential reproductive success B) overproduction of offspring C) genetic variation D) gene flow

Q: Natural selection generally results in ________. A) increased genetic variation B) a population that is better adapted to a future environment C) a population that is adapted to its current environment D) an increase in the size of a population

Q: The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ________. A) analogy B) common ancestry C) genetic drift D) decreased genetic variation

Q: Which of the following are homologous? A) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat B) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat C) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow D) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird

Q: Homology is evidence of ________. A) binomial classification B) artificial selection C) natural selection D) common ancestry

Q: The fossil record suggests that whales ________. A) are descended from one branch of marine reptiles B) are closely related to land mammals such as pigs, hippos, and cows C) are not closely related to dolphins and porpoises, despite a superficial similarity D) once had well-developed hind flippers

Q: Which of the following is a component of the fossil record? A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats C) molecular sequences D) bones of extinct whales

Q: In The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was ________. A) artificial selection B) natural selection C) inheritance of acquired characteristics D) uniformitarianism

Q: While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ________ and sculpted by geologic processes that ________ today. A) old... continue B) old... no longer occur C) young... continue D) young... no longer occur

Q: During his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ________. A) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found B) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents C) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today D) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region

Q: Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle is TRUE? A) Its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean. B) It lasted almost 2 years. C) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals. D) It ended with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost 4 years into its journey.

Q: The first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to ________. A) ancient Greeks about 2,500 years ago B) Aristotle C) Lamarck D) Darwin

Q: Natural selection ________. A) results in evolutionary adaptation B) is a very rare phenomenon C) does not affect allelic frequencies D) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment

Q: Natural selection can be defined as ________. A) the evolution of a population of organisms B) a process in which changes in gene frequencies result from evolution C) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other traits

Q: ________ believed that use (or lack of use) of body parts enables individual to develop certain traits that it passes on to its offspring while ________ believed that species are fixed forms that do not change over time. A) Aristotle Lamarck B) Lamarck Aristotle C) Darwin Aristotle D) Lamarck Darwin

Q: The common house mouse species, Mus musculus, has the following taxonomic classification: Mus, Muridae, Rodentia, Mammalia, Chordata, Animalia, Eukarya. Which part of the name is the Family? A) Rodentia B) Chordata C) Muridae D) Animalia

Q: Which is NOT a benefit of the understanding of evolution to understanding the field of biology? A) Understanding evolution helps us to understand molecules. B) Understanding evolution helps us to analyze ecosystems. C) Understanding evolution helps advance biotechnology and medicine. D) Understanding evolution helps us to understand why stars and galaxies change over time.

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Corn crops are susceptible to damage by different species of corn borer, an insect (a type of arthropod) that feeds and lives on corn plants. It is estimated that corn borers may cause up to $1 billion of damage a year to corn crops. Because of pests like the corn borer, researchers have created genetically modified pest-resistant crops. One type of pest-resistant crop, Bt corn, expresses a bacterial toxin that kills corn borers if they consume the toxin. While Bt corn has been planted and used in the United States since 1996, some researchers and members of the public continue to worry about negative effects of the Bt toxin on other animals, including arthropods and humans. In order to investigate the effects of Bt toxins on other animals, researchers conducted experiments where they fed arthropods Bt corn or non-Bt corn. A summary of the effects of eating Bt corn on single species of corn borer, mite, and beetle are shown in the figure below. One of your local newscasters sees these data and announces on the news that "Bt toxins are safe because they have no negative effects on any arthropods except for the corn borers." Do you agree with that statement? A) Yes, because the data clearly show that the Bt toxin is harmless to arthropods other than the corn borer. B) Yes, because only the corn borer was affected when eating the Bt corn. C) No, because more mites and beetles died after eating Bt corn than after eating non-Bt corn. D) No, because these data were obtained from testing Bt on two species of mites and beetles; perhaps other arthropods may respond differently to Bt.

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Corn crops are susceptible to damage by different species of corn borer, an insect (a type of arthropod) that feeds and lives on corn plants. It is estimated that corn borers may cause up to $1 billion of damage a year to corn crops. Because of pests like the corn borer, researchers have created genetically modified pest-resistant crops. One type of pest-resistant crop, Bt corn, expresses a bacterial toxin that kills corn borers if they consume the toxin. While Bt corn has been planted and used in the United States since 1996, some researchers and members of the public continue to worry about negative effects of the Bt toxin on other animals, including arthropods and humans. In order to investigate the effects of Bt toxins on other animals, researchers conducted experiments where they fed arthropods Bt corn or non-Bt corn. A summary of the effects of eating Bt corn on single species of corn borer, mite, and beetle are shown in the figure below. Based on the data in the graph, do you think Bt corn is having its intended effect? A) Yes, because Bt corn affected the mortality of all three arthropods equally. B) Yes, because Bt corn selectively killed corn borers that ate it while the beetles and mites were unaffected when eating the Bt corn as compared to the non-Bt corn. C) No, because Bt corn was designed to kill all arthropods that ate it, and only the corn borers were killed after eating the Bt corn. D) No, because corn borer percent mortality increased when corn borers ate Bt corn; if Bt corn was effective, then percent mortality should have decreased.

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Corn crops are susceptible to damage by different species of corn borer, an insect (a type of arthropod) that feeds and lives on corn plants. It is estimated that corn borers may cause up to $1 billion of damage a year to corn crops. Because of pests like the corn borer, researchers have created genetically modified pest-resistant crops. One type of pest-resistant crop, Bt corn, expresses a bacterial toxin that kills corn borers if they consume the toxin. While Bt corn has been planted and used in the United States since 1996, some researchers and members of the public continue to worry about negative effects of the Bt toxin on other animals, including arthropods and humans. In order to investigate the effects of Bt toxins on other animals, researchers conducted experiments where they fed arthropods Bt corn or non-Bt corn. A summary of the effects of eating Bt corn on single species of corn borer, mite, and beetle are shown in the figure below. What can you conclude from the data in the graph? A) Corn borers are less likely to survive if they eat Bt corn compared to non-Bt corn. B) Mites have the highest percent mortality of the arthropods studied. C) Beetles are more likely to survive than mites when fed Bt corn. D) Bt corn affects the mortality of all three arthropods equally.

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her in the United States. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Other forms of proof are required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to show that she was the mother of the daughter. Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and the daughter (D) as well as from her son (S) living in the United States with her. STR analysis was run on the three samples, and the results are shown below. STR analysis can also be used for crime scene investigations in addition to maternity testing. Suppose that the results for the Mom were found at a crime scene, that the daughter's and the son's results were from possible suspects, and that each of the DNA markers in the gel was an STR marker. Would these results be enough to convince a jury that the results from the daughter matched the crime scene DNA (Mom)? A) Yes, because the two STR markers match in size. B) Yes, because you need only one STR marker to match to definitely make a connection between two people's DNA. C) No, because even though two STR markers matched, there still could be mismatches in the other 11 markers. D) No, because blood-typing data analysis was not performed.

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her in the United States. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Other forms of proof are required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to show that she was the mother of the daughter. Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and the daughter (D) as well as from her son (S) living in the United States with her. STR analysis was run on the three samples, and the results are shown below. The short tandem repeat analysis ________. A) compares markers on the sex chromosomes B) compares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals C) does not require DNA amplification D) checks for purine and pyrimidine ratios

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her in the United States. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Other forms of proof are required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to show that she was the mother of the daughter. Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and the daughter (D) as well as from her son (S) living in the United States with her. STR analysis was run on the three samples, and the results are shown below. You can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ________. A) the shade of DNA bands will differ B) both mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes C) of the position of the bands in the gel D) of the size of the bands

Q: Please read the following scenario and then answer the following questions. Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her in the United States. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Other forms of proof are required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to show that she was the mother of the daughter. Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and the daughter (D) as well as from her son (S) living in the United States with her. STR analysis was run on the three samples, and the results are shown below. The results indicate that ________. A) she is not the mother of the son B) she is the mother of daughter D C) she is not the mother of daughter D D) the mother could not be the mother of both the daughter and the son

Q: The gel shown above includes a DNA ladder that can be used to estimate the sizes of DNA molecules. The ladder increases in 100 nucleotide increments, from 100 to 700. Four DNA molecules have been separated on this gel (labeled A to D). What is the approximate size of DNA molecule A? A) 250 nucleotides B) 300 nucleotides C) 350 nucleotides D) 400 nucleotides

Q: The gel shown above includes a DNA ladder that can be used to estimate the sizes of DNA molecules. The ladder increases in 100 nucleotide increments, from 100 to 700. Four DNA molecules have been separated on this gel (labeled A to D). Which DNA molecule is the largest? A) DNA molecule A B) DNA molecule B C) DNA molecule C D) DNA molecule D

Q: The diagram below summarizes ________. A) gene cloning B) how a human could be cloned C) human gene therapy D) how a vaccine is made

Q: The following figure shows that gel electrophoresis can be used to separate repetitive DNA sequences. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments because ________. A) double-stranded moves slower than single-stranded DNA B) of ratios of guanine to cytosine C) the DNA fragments have different lengths D) of the salt concentration in the gel matrix

Q: The following figure provides you with an overview of recombinant technology. The end result is a transgenic bacterium with a human gene that codes for marketable quantities of a human gene product. However, molecular biologists frequently have problems with the product. One problem might be ________. A) production of a human protein that is unable to function properly B) formation of a bacterium that cannot synthesize the product C) a bacterium with DNA that is resistant to restriction enzymes D) formation of mutants

Q: The possibility that Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan spread an unusual chromosome to nearly 16 million men living today resulted from studies of ________. A) proteomics B) plasmids C) the X chromosome D) the Y chromosome

Q: Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ________. A) the potential for interfering in evolution, only B) the safety of GM foods, only C) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases, only D) all of the answer choices are correct

Q: Genetically modifying human ________ cells may directly affect future generations. A) intestinal B) immune C) gametic D) somatic

Q: The state of human gene therapy today is that ________. A) the work that has been completed so far is purely theoretical, but some treatments are in development B) there have been a small number of successes, including with the disease SCID C) human gene therapy is used routinely in the treatment of certain rare cancers D) human gene therapy is used to treat a wide variety of conditions, including diabetes, cancer, and bone marrow diseases

Q: In human gene therapy ________. A) normal versions of genes are transferred to patients who carry a mutated allele B) harmless bacteria make important proteins for humans that cannot produce these proteins on their own C) bacterial plasmids are used to transfer genes to human patients D) genetically engineered alleles, usually from other species, replace mutated alleles

Q: The study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is ________. A) proteomics B) genomics C) metagenomics D) systems biology

Q: To find the nucleotide sequence of human chromosomes, chromosomes had to be digested into small fragments and then ________. A) centrifuged and electrophoresed B) fingerprinted C) cloned and sequenced D) restricted

Q: Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans? A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor. B) Humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) Humans are unique and different from all other life forms. D) Humans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees.

Q: The Human Genome Project has the potential to ________. A) lead to treatments for inherited diseases B) lead to treatments for contagious diseases C) increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species D) play a role in all of the choices listed here

Q: Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA? A) 98% B) 87% C) 77% D) 67%

Q: The human genome contains approximately ________ genes. A) 1,000 B) 5,000 C) 21,000 D) 30,000

Q: The scientific field that studies complete sets of genes is called ________. A) genomics B) metagenomics C) proteomics D) genetic engineering