Q&A Hero

Q: In all types of chemoreceptors, receptor cells develop receptor potentials in response to ________. A) changes in the movement of the surrounding molecules B) the electrical properties of the surrounding cells C) chemicals dissolved in a fluid such as blood or saliva D) the addition of positively charged proteins

Q: In contrast to action potentials, receptor potentials ________. A) are all-or-none phenomena B) vary in intensity C) do not require a stimulus D) do not rely on changes in the membrane potential

Q: Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors? A) going into deep sleep B) distinguishing between different colors C) ignoring the shoes on your feet D) detecting sound and light simultaneously

Q: The receptor potential is the ________. A) membrane potential produced when a neurotransmitter molecule binds to its receptor B) membrane potential produced in the receptor cell by sensory transduction C) membrane potential produced as an all-or-none phenomenon D) membrane potential produced at a muscle cell

Q: Alzheimer's disease is characterized by ________. A) mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes B) extreme mood swings C) loss of energy and suicidal thoughts D) increased energy and extreme talkativeness

Q: Which of the following was supported by the terrible accident that happened to Phineas Gage? A) The cerebrum plays a major role in the sense of balance. B) You cannot live without your hypothalamus. C) The frontal lobes are associated with personality. D) The pons plays a crucial role in hearing.

Q: The cerebral cortex is highly folded. Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum? A) The increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking. B) The increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum. C) The folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions. D) The folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.

Q: Which one of the following correctly pairs the structure with its major function(s)? A) hypothalamus"regulates body temperature, blood pressure, and hunger B) cerebellum"regulates memory, learning, and speech C) brainstem"is the input center for sensory data going to the cerebrum D) thalamus"coordinates balance

Q: Which, if any, of the following types of personal characteristics are based in the cerebral cortex? A) reasoning abilities only B) artistic talents only C) personality traits only D) reasoning abilities, artistic talents, and personality traits

Q: You start to trip, but you keep your balance and don't fall. Which of the following brain regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling? A) cerebral cortex B) thalamus C) cerebellum D) cerebrum

Q: Realizing that you did not study as much as you needed to for this exam, you start to take the test. However, it is difficult to concentrate because your heart is racing, your stomach seems tied in a knot, you are breathing too quickly, and your mouth is dry. Most likely, you are experiencing the effects of the ________. A) motor nervous system B) sympathetic division C) parasympathetic division D) central nervous system

Q: Which of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system? A) decreased heart rate B) stimulated digestive organs C) secretion of epinephrine D) narrowing of the bronchi

Q: What part of the nervous system cushions the CNS and helps supply it with nutrients and hormones, and carries away wastes? A) cerebrospinal fluid B) spinal cord C) interneurons D) the bones of the skull

Q: Which of the following is(are) part of the central nervous system? A) motor system B) brain and spinal cord C) brain only D) spinal cord only

Q: Where would we expect to find electrical synapses? A) within the brain B) within the heart C) within the spinal cord D) between interneurons and motor neurons

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Heroin binds to endorphin receptors. B) Caffeine increases the effects of neurotransmitters that normally suppress nerve signals. C) Alcohol is a stimulant. D) Nicotine is a depressant.

Q: Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning? A) acetylcholine B) epinephrine C) serotonin D) endorphins

Q: In a chemical synapse, what is the name of the gap between the sending and receiving cells? A) synaptic terminal B) action potential C) synaptic cleft D) myelin sheath

Q: A neuron can relay a more intense signal by ________. A) sending a stronger action potential B) sending more action potentials in a given amount of time C) sending an action potential that travels more quickly D) sending a longer action potential

Q: The movement of an action potential along a neuron is most like ________. A) the ripples created by dropping a pebble into a pond, gradually decreasing in size as the waves spread apart B) a crowd at a sporting event doing the wave around a stadium C) a radio tower emitting a signal that reaches only a small region D) the sound of your voice spreading out as you yell loudly to your friend while at a park

Q: What causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential? A) Negatively charged ions rush out. B) Positively charged ions rush in. C) Positively charged ions rush out. D) Negatively charged ions rush in.

Q: The minimum change in a membrane's voltage that must occur to trigger an action potential is called the ________. A) threshold B) synaptic terminal C) membrane potential D) resting potential

Q: Outnumbering neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons? A) sensory cells B) motor cells C) satellite cells D) supporting cells

Q: Which of these carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron? A) axons B) dendrites C) actin filaments D) supporting cells

Q: Multiple sclerosis involves primarily ________. A) destruction of the medulla oblongata B) deterioration of the corpus callosum C) destruction of the myelin sheath D) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord

Q: Which of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system? A) sensory neuron and motor neuron B) interneuron neuron and motor neuron C) interneuron neuron and sensory neuron D) only motor neurons

Q: In the nervous system, integration ________. A) occurs at the axon B) inevitably results in the attainment of a threshold potential C) is the analysis and interpretation of sensory signals and the formulation of appropriate responses D) is the assimilation of memories

Q: The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are ________. A) dendrites B) neurons C) effectors D) synapses

Q: The two major divisions of the nervous system are the ________. A) sympathetic and parasympathetic B) central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS) C) sensory and motor D) voluntary and involuntary

Q: What evolutionary adaptation allows elephants to migrate, meet, and mate over great distances? A) echolocation B) electroreception C) magnetoreception D) seismic detection

Q: What data besides core, skin, and scrotal temperatures would be good to gather to support or reject the hypothesis that underwear type affects fertility? A) the size and position of participants' testes B) the number and quality of sperm in wearers of each type of underwear C) the ability of participants to maintain temperature in very cold or very warm conditions D) the fertility of each man's partner

Q: The data below are average temperatures from an experiment with more than 100 men in boxers and in briefs. Boxers Briefs Core Body temp 36.6 36.5 Surface skin temp 30.8 30.9 Scrotal skin temp 33.8 33.6 What conclusion can be drawn from these data? A) Men who wore briefs were cooler overall than men who wore boxers. B) The type of underwear men wear has no impact on fertility. C) The generally held idea is confirmed that men who wear boxers have cooler scrotal temperatures than those who wear briefs. D) Scrotal temperature is not significantly decreased by wearing boxers rather than briefs.

Q: Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following questions. Two researchers addressed the generally accepted idea that boxer shorts are better for male fertility than briefs because they lower testicular temperature. They begin by saying, "Although this idea is regarded as dogma by many in the lay community and the changing of underwear type is a therapy frequently recommended by medical practitioners, there is a paucity of data measuring scrotal temperature as a function of underwear type. ("Munkelwitz, Robert, and Gilbert, Bruce R. "Are boxer shorts really better? A critical analysis of the role of underwear type in male subfertility." The Journal of Urology, 160.4 (1998): 13291333.) Which of these describes the best experimental design to test the idea that scrotal temperature is less with boxers than with briefs? A) Take an equal number of men wearing boxers and men wearing briefs and have them go into a clinic and have their scrotal temperatures measured. B) Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age and have some put on boxers and some put on briefs and then measure their scrotal temperatures. C) Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age with half wearing boxers and half wearing briefs. Have them spend time in a room of the same constant temperature and then measure their scrotal temperatures. D) Take the first 100 men who come into a fertility clinic, record who are wearing boxers and who are wearing briefs, and then measure their scrotal temperatures.

Q: Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following questions. Two researchers addressed the generally accepted idea that boxer shorts are better for male fertility than briefs because they lower testicular temperature. They begin by saying, "Although this idea is regarded as dogma by many in the lay community and the changing of underwear type is a therapy frequently recommended by medical practitioners, there is a paucity of data measuring scrotal temperature as a function of underwear type. ("Munkelwitz, Robert, and Gilbert, Bruce R. "Are boxer shorts really better? A critical analysis of the role of underwear type in male subfertility." The Journal of Urology, 160.4 (1998): 13291333.) What hypothesis are these authors testing? A) Boxer shorts allow the scrotal sac to be more exposed to outside temperature than briefs do. B) Boxer shorts fit more loosely than briefs. C) Boxer shorts allow the scrotal sac to have a lower temperature than briefs do. D) Men with impaired fertility are more likely to wear briefs than boxers.

Q: Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following questions. Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease (STD). The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24. A vasectomy ________. A) prevents the production of sperm in the testes B) prevents the production of semen C) prevents the movement of sperm out of the testes D) is an effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease

Q: Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following questions. Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease (STD). The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24. A diaphragm functions as a birth control device by ________. A) preventing ovulation B) preventing implantation of an embryo C) stimulating the production of sperm-killing antibodies D) preventing the movement of sperm into the uterus

Q: Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following questions. Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease (STD). The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24. Which of the following birth control methods provides the most effective protection against pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease for sexually active people? A) the pill B) latex condoms C) a diaphragm D) the rhythm method

Q: What does the ovarian cycle image above illustrate? A) The peak of luteinizing hormone occurs slightly before mid-cycle. B) Ovulation occurs well before mid-cycle. C) The level of luteinizing hormone does not change much during the cycle. D) The level of progesterone spikes just before mid-cycle.

Q: What does the ovarian cycle image above illustrate? A) A rise in the level of luteinizing hormone brings about ovulation. B) A rise in the level of estrogen brings about ovulation. C) The endometrium is thinner during the first half of the cycle than during the latter half. D) A corpus luteum is necessary for ovulation.

Q: Examine the embryo in the following figure. The hands and feet of this embryo appear paddle-like, with no distinct toes or fingers. What process is needed to define each of the toes and fingers? A) programmed cell death B) neurulation C) gastrulation D) induction

Q: The figure shows a human embryo 31 days after conception. Which of the following structures is part of the placenta? A) embryo B) chorion C) amnion D) yolk sac

Q: The figure shows oogenesis. What is the function of the polar bodies that are produced during oogenesis? They are a mechanism that allows for ________. A) the shedding of excess cytoplasm during the production of a haploid ovum B) the shedding of excess genetic material during the production of a haploid ovum C) the shedding of excess mitochondria during the production of a haploid ovum D) streamlining of the ovum so as to facilitate the penetration of an ovum by a sperm

Q: According to the diagram above, after a vasectomy (within the scrotal sac), ________. A) secretions from the prostate can no longer reach the urethra B) secretions from the seminal vesicles can no longer reach the urethra C) secretions from the sperm duct can no longer reach the urethra D) sperm from the testes can no longer reach the urethra

Q: The figure shows male reproductive anatomy. In a human male reproductive system, ________. A) sperm mature in the urethra B) the vas deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis C) the sperm travel through the sperm duct before reaching the urethra during ejaculation D) sperm mature in the prostate gland

Q: The animal in the accompanying figure illustrates ________. A) fission B) regeneration C) asexual reproduction D) growth of male reproductive structures

Q: The "grandmother hypothesis" suggests that natural selection may have favored a woman ________. A) moving away from her children and grandchildren B) focusing her energy on caring for her grandchildren, instead of producing more children C) focusing her energy on the production of as many children as possible before reaching menopause D) helping her sisters produce more children

Q: Which of these is NOT a legal or physical disadvantage of current reproductive technologies? A) Babies born as a result of In Vitro Fertilization have significantly higher rates of autism. B) Surgery is necessary to remove eggs for In Vitro Fertilization. C) Hormone injections to promote ovulation may cause the birth of multiples. D) It is sometimes unclear how current law applies to babies born through current reproductive technologies.

Q: Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor, in the proper order? A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta B) dilation, crowning, expulsion C) contractions, dilation, expulsion D) contractions, dilation, crowning

Q: Which of the following substances stimulates contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor? A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prolactin

Q: Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development? A) formation of internal organs B) formation of external features such as arms and legs C) growth D) organ formation

Q: At about what point in gestation does the fetal heartbeat become audible by stethoscope and the fetus's movements easily felt by the mother? A) 15 weeks B) 20 weeks C) 25 weeks D) 30 weeks

Q: At about what point in gestation can an ultrasound exam determine the sex of the fetus? A) about 4 weeks after fertilization B) at the end of the first trimester C) about 20 weeks after fertilization D) at the end of the second trimester

Q: When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus? A) within a few hours of fertilization B) about a day after conception C) about a week after conception D) just after gastrulation

Q: The lifeline between the embryo and the placenta ________. A) is derived from the yolk sac B) is derived from the amnion C) is called the "chorion" D) is called the "umbilical cord"

Q: What is gestation? A) conception B) fertilization C) development D) pregnancy

Q: Which one of the following is a result of programmed cell death? A) formation of fingers in humans B) gastrulation C) formation of the notochord D) formation of the brain

Q: Mesoderm gives rise to the ________. A) heart and kidneys B) brain and skin C) nervous system and thyroid D) liver and pancreas

Q: Gastrulation ________. A) produces a solid ball of cells B) changes the blastocyst into an embryo that has three tissue layers C) changes the fertilized egg into a blastocyst D) changes a gastrula into a blastocyst

Q: The liver, pancreas, and lining of the digestive tract come from ________. A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) endometrium

Q: Which of the following results from cleavage? A) formation of the nervous system B) formation of the notochord C) formation of more cells D) segmentation

Q: Which of these events occurs first? A) gastrulation B) cleavage C) implantation D) formation of the placenta

Q: Which one of the following is the earliest event in the process of fertilization? A) Sperm contact the jelly coat around the egg. B) The sperm head plasma membrane fuses with the egg plasma membrane. C) Enzymes from the acrosome are released. D) The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg.

Q: A sperm cell's acrosome ________. A) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization B) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell C) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg D) contains the sperm's mitochondria

Q: Which one of the following STDs is NOT caused by a virus? A) AIDS B) chlamydia C) genital warts D) genital herpes

Q: Which of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that are generally NOT curable? A) bacteria B) viruses C) fungi D) insects

Q: Which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control. B) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy. C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation. D) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.

Q: What would happen if an embryo failed to secrete HCG? A) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop. B) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop. C) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would not have a brain. D) The embryo would be aborted.

Q: In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the ________. A) levels of estrogen reach their maximum B) hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH C) level of progesterone drops precipitously D) levels of FSH and LH drop precipitously

Q: Menstruation ________. A) involves the breakdown of the endometrium B) is stimulated by HCG C) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle D) is triggered by an LH surge

Q: Researchers have found a general relationship between testicular cancer and exercise. Increased exercise is associated with a decrease in incidence of testicular cancer. However, a positive relationship (increased incidence of testicular cancer) was found between testicular cancer and riding bikes or horses. Several factors might be hypothesized to bring about this result. Which of these hypotheses is properly related to a prediction that arises from it? A) Hypothesis: Riding bikes or horses causes trauma to the testes. Prediction: Bike or horse riding will cause testes to shrink. B) Hypothesis: The seat on bikes and the saddle on horses are made of material containing chemicals that damage testicular cells. Prediction: Chemicals found in bike seats or horse saddles damage testicular cells. C) Hypothesis: Riding bikes or horses increases scrotal temperature, which damages testicular cells. Prediction: Bike riders are more likely to wear briefs than boxers as their underwear of choice. D) Hypothesis: Mutations that lead to testicular cancer make men more likely to ride bikes or horses. Prediction: Men who ride bikes or horses have a higher rate of mutations than nonriders.

Q: Researchers have found a general relationship between testicular cancer and exercise. Increased exercise is associated with a decrease in incidence of testicular cancer. However, a positive relationship (increased incidence of testicular cancer) was found between testicular cancer and riding bikes or horses. Several factors might be hypothesized to bring about this result. All but one of the following statements are reasonable hypotheses that researchers might follow to seek the cause for this relationship. Choose the exception. A) Riding bikes or horses causes trauma to the testes. B) The seat on bikes and the saddle on horses are made of material containing chemicals that damage testicular cells. C) Riding bikes or horses increases scrotal temperature, which damages testicular cells. D) Mutations that lead to testicular cancer make men more likely to ride bikes or horses.

Q: All of these are similarities between the male and female system EXCEPT one. Choose the exception. A) Both have erectile tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual excitement. B) Both have paired gamete-producing organs. C) Both have a urethra that carries both urine and gametes. D) Both have a pair of tubes that can carry gametes.

Q: Which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Meiosis in oogenesis produces four mature eggs from one primary oocyte. B) Oogenesis begins during puberty. C) Spermatogenesis in an individual begins before that individual is born. D) Oogenesis in humans is completed after stimulation by sperm.

Q: In a human female reproductive system, the ________. A) hymen partly covers the cervical opening B) vagina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining C) labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region D) outer features are collectively called the vulva

Q: Where does the embryo normally implant? A) in the oviduct B) in the corpus luteum C) in the follicle of the ovary D) in the endometrium of the uterus

Q: What moves the human egg through the oviduct? A) the beating of the egg's cilia B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct

Q: Where in a woman's reproductive tract does fertilization most often take place? A) in the ovary B) in the oviduct C) in the follicle D) in the uterus

Q: What advantage is associated with human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity? A) a shorter distance that semen must travel during ejaculation B) the testes can be kept at a constant temperature C) the testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior D) the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity

Q: Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in ________. A) populations with many more males than females B) animals that are widely dispersed C) aquatic animals D) populations with many more females than males

Q: Hermaphrodites ________. A) possess both male and female reproductive systems B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other C) usually fertilize themselves D) have abnormal reproductive systems