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Anthropology
Q:
The short term changes in allele frequency occurring within a species are defined as:
A.founder effect
B.genetic drift
C.macroevolution
D.microevolution
E.population genetics
Q:
A population is defined by:
A.a group currently experiencing similar changes in allele frequencies
B.increasingly genetically similar due to small size
C.geographic proximity
D.a group whose members can successfully reproduce and produce fertile offspring
E.a community within a species whose members are more likely to mate with each
Q:
The modern genetic definition of evolution is:
A.the process of transmutation
B.a change in gene frequency between generations
C.the process of a change in species primarily associated with mutation
D.the exchange of genes between populations
E.all of these
Q:
The primary goal of the Human Genome Project is to:
A.successfully clone a human being
B.successfully produce copies of human DNA
C.sequence and map the entire human genetic code
D.all of these
E.none of these
Q:
A technique that allows scientists to make multiple copies of a DNA segment is called:
A.RNA
B.mtDNA
C.polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D.gene sequencing
E.cloning
Q:
Mitochondrial DNA is:
A.inherited from both parents
B.does not appear to have any known function
C.directs the conversion of energy within cells
D.inherited only from the father
E.not associated with any known genetic disorder
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example of a polygenic trait?
A.hair color
B.stature
C.eye color
D.All of the above are polygenic traits.
E.only A and C
Q:
The expression of two alleles in a heterozygote is defined as:
A.hemizygous
B.codominance
C.independent assortment
D.combined expression
E.point mutation
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a human Mendelian trait?
A.ABO blood type
B.Marfan syndrome
C.achondroplasia
D.skin color
E.phenylketonuria
Q:
The fact that the distribution of one pair of alleles into gametes does not influence the distribution of another pair is known as:
A.independent assortment
B.crossing over
C.recombination
D.a Mendelian trait
E.mutation
Q:
The physical expression of an individual's genetic code is referred to as their:
A.genotype
B.phenotype
C.karyotype
D.chromosome
E.genetic potential
Q:
A Mendelian trait would have how many loci?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.any possible number of loci
Q:
An individual's actual genetic make-up is called the:
A.phenotype
B.chromosome
C.genome
D.allele
E.genotype
Q:
Mendel's research into pea plant hybrids revealed what pattern in the expression of traits?
A.The F1 plants had a lower percentage of the dominant trait than the F2 plants.
B.The F2 plants contained a 3:1 mix of the traits.
C.The F1 plants were all the same.
D.all of the above
E.only B and C
Q:
An individual possessing different alleles at the same locus is defined as:
A.hemizygous
B.homozygous
C.heterozygous
D.genetically normal
E.none of these
Q:
An individual possessing two identical alleles at the same locus is defined as:
A.hemizygous
B.homozygous
C.heterozygous
D.genetically normal
E.none of these
Q:
An alternate form of a gene is known as an:
A.allele
B.autosome
C.locus
D.gamete
E.hybrid
Q:
The term locus refers to:
A.the position on a chromosome where a given gene occurs
B.the alternate form of a trait
C.the stage of meiosis when chromosomes are connected at the centromere
D.the location of the chromosome within an autosome
E.all of these
Q:
An allele which is expressed in a heterozygote is defined as:
A.recessive
B.codomiminant
C.dominant
D.masking
E.hemizygous
Q:
An allele which is not expressed in a heterozygote is defined as:
A.recessive
B.codomiminant
C.dominant
D.masking
E.hemizygous
Q:
The principle of segregation is based on:
A.the fact that all alleles occur in pairs
B.the separation of allele pairs during meiosis
C.the presence of only one member of a chromosome pair in a gamete
D.all of these
E.none of these
Q:
Recombination refers to:
A.the process of the production of sister cells
B.the exchange of DNA between paired chromosomes
C.the formation of the zygote
D.the connection of two chromosomes at the centromere
E.all of these
Q:
Meiosis:
A.is cell division in somatic cells
B.replaces cells during growth and development
C.is associated with the production of sister cells
D.results in the creation of gametes
E.permits healing of injured tissue
Q:
DNA replication in the process of mitosis results in the formation of:
A.protein synthesis
B.daughter cells
C.gametes
D.mutations
E.rDNA
Q:
The X and Y chromosomes are called:
A.autosomes
B.gametes
C.centromeres
D.sex chromosomes
E.karyotypes
Q:
All non-sex chromosomes are called:
A.gametes
B.karyotypes
C.autosomes
D.centromeres
E.autosomes
Q:
Chromosomes are:
A.visible only during certain stages of cell division
B.contain DNA
C.do not contain protein
D.all of the above
E.only A and B
Q:
A zygote:
A.is formed by the union of two somatic cells
B.has only half the full complement of genetic material
C.is part of a nucleotide
D.undergoes meiosis
E.is a fertilized egg
Q:
Gametes are typically found in what part of an organism?
A.cell nuclei
B.mitochondria
C.cytoplasm
D.ovaries
E.all of these
Q:
Which of the following characteristics are associated with somatic cells?
A.primarily associated with reproduction
B.produced through mitosis
C.comprise the primary type of cells in the human body
D.all of the above
E.only B and C
Q:
Mutations typically are defined by:
A.an alteration to DNA bases
B.the change in the structure of a chromosome
C.an alteration in the number of chromosomes
D.all of the above
E.only B and C
Q:
The entire sequence of DNA bases responsible for the manufacture of a protein or part of a protein is called
A.a helix
B.a codon
C.a polypeptide
D.an amino acid
E.a gene
Q:
Which of the following is NOT TRUE?A.Proteins are composed of amino acids.B.Proteins differ from one another only because they are composed of different amino acids.C.The number and sequence of amino acids determines which protein is manufactured.D.Proteins are produced in the cell's cytoplasm.E.The sequence of amino acids in a protein is ultimately determined by the sequence of DNA bases.
Q:
Enzymes conduct which of the following functions?
A.initiate and direct chemical reactions in the body
B.regulate cellular function
C.enable crossing-over during recombination
D.the production of gametes
E.the binding of oxygen molecules
Q:
RNA is primarily associated with:
A.protein synthesis
B.cell replication
C.conversion of energy within the mitochondria
D.recombination
E.production of nucleotides
Q:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the fundamental component of what part of the human cell?
A.the mitochondria
B.chromosomes
C.cytoplasm
D.nucleus
E.all of these
Q:
The chromosomes are contained within what part of the cell?
A.autosomes
B.nucleus
C.mitochonria
D.genes
E.none of these
Q:
The United States legal system has consistently rejected the teaching of creationism or creation science in the U.S. public school system.
Q:
Intelligent design represents a new critique of the theory of evolution through natural selection.
Q:
Evolution is a theory that has considerable support from genetic evidence.
Q:
Darwin was unable to explain how variability was maintained within populations.
Q:
There are no well-documented examples of natural selection operating in natural populations.
Q:
Darwin's theory of evolution has not been widely accepted by the general public because of the general lack of empirical evidence supporting his ideas.
Q:
One of the primary challenges to the acceptance of Darwin's development of the theory of evolution through natural selection was the prevailing scientific belief in the fixity of species.
Q:
Charles Darwin refrained from publishing his theory because he was concerned of the social and political reaction to his controversial idea.
Q:
Prior to the 1800s, the notion of the possibility of change or extinction in a species was a well-established fact.
Q:
Lyell is credited with being the first to challenge the notion that a species could change over time.
Q:
Which of the following best defines the current status of attempts to include creationism in the science curriculum in United States public schools?
A.Several states have successfully passed such measures.
B.The teaching of creationism has been upheld by the Federal court system.
C.Creationism has been ruled to violate the separation of church and state and is not allowed as a legal part of the curriculum.
D.It is against the law to teach evolutionism in most U.S. public schools.
E.Creationism has not been tested by the U.S. court system.
Q:
Intelligent design is derived from which of the following views of the origins of life on earth?
A.argument from design
B.catastrophism
C.inheritance of acquired characteristics
D.uniformitarianism
E.none of these
Q:
Why is the theory of intelligent design not considered to be scientific?
A.It asserts that the Christian God is the source of all life.
B.Its primary supporters are members of the clergy.
C.Its reliance on a divine designer cannot be refuted using the scientific method.
D.The scientific community hasn't accepted it.
E.all of these
Q:
Which of the following factors have impeded the public acceptance of the theory of evolution?
A.lack of agreement within the scientific community about its validity
B.lack of requisite education by general public
C.inherent differences in religious and scientific ways of understanding the world
D.all of the above
E.only B and C
Q:
The existence of biological continuity is primarily the product of which of the following factors?
A.speciation
B.common ancestry
C.natural selection
D.fixity of species
E.none of these
Q:
Which of the following aspects of Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution through natural selection remained unanswered in the 19th century?
A.differential reproductive success
B.how variability within a population was maintained
C.uniformitarianism and deep time
D.the factors associated with competition
E.transmutation
Q:
Nineteenth century scholars typically conceived of the process of inheritance as which of the following?
A.a blend of each parent's traits
B.the inheritance of individual particles or alleles
C.a process of transmutation
D.a measure of total reproductive success
E.as inherently defined by environmental factors
Q:
The current roots of the misunderstanding of evolutionary theory, can in part be traced to:
A.the continued debate within the scientific community concerning its validity
B.the anti-Christian attitudes of many early proponents of transmutation
C.the fact that the genetic basis for natural selection is still largely unknown
D.all of the above
E.only B and C
Q:
Differential net reproductive success is defined as:
A.the differential number of offspring of two competing populations or species
B.the total number of offspring of an individual
C.the number of offspring raised to reproductive age
D.the difference between total deaths and total births of a given species
E.all of these
Q:
Genetic fitness is best described as:
A.relative reproductive success of an individual
B.relative degree of inherited strength or stamina
C.relative success of one species versus another
D.the extent to which an individual is genetically suited to obtain food
E.all of these
Q:
What factors have resulted in the development of drug-resistant bacteria?
A.inherent genetic variability in the bacteria
B.the fast reproductive rate of bacteria
C.the general ineffectiveness of antibiotics
D.all of the above
E.only A and B
Q:
What selective effect did the 1977 Galapagos drought have on medium ground finches?
A.The population went extinct due to lack of food.
B.The medium finches were out competed by the larger 'nut-cracker' finches.
C.The overall population increased because they were better adapted.
D.Average beach thickness increased over time.
E.none of these
Q:
What factor was the primary change that altered the adaptive patterns of the peppered moths?
A.an increase in mean annual temperature
B.an decrease in the average rainfall
C.an change in the quantity of coal dust and soot
D.the introduction of a new prey species
E.the extinction of the primary food of the caterpillars
Q:
Which of the following statements best fits with the idea of evolution through natural selection as proposed by Darwin and Wallace?
A.Individual organisms acquire traits that make them more adapted to their environments.
B.Natural selection works primarily on the individual.
C.The primary measure of fitness is the ability of a population to successfully compete with another species.
D.Most species have remained relatively stable throughout long periods of geologic time.
E.all of these
Q:
Which of the following would be an example of a selective pressure?
A.drought influencing the size and toughness of seeds
B.antibiotics
C.prey animals
D.all of the above
E.only A and C
Q:
The number of offspring an organism successfully produces and rears to reproductive age is known as:
A.natural selection
B.selective pressures
C.inherent variability
D.transmutation
E.reproductive success
Q:
Which of the following statements about evolutionary change is INCORRECT?
A.Both acquired and inherited traits are subject to natural selection.
B.Fitness is relative to a particular set of environmental conditions.
C.There must be variation within a population.
D.Natural selection only acts on traits that have reproductive consequences.
E.None of the above are incorrect.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic processes of evolution defined by Darwin?
A.the tendency for environment to equally favor all traits
B.the presence of inherent variability within species
C.the production of more offspring than can survive
D.the presence of individuals who possess more advantageous traits
E.the transmission of traits between generations
Q:
Which of the following best defines the term "reproductive success"?
A.the ability to raise offspring to reproductive age
B.an individuals genetic contribution to the next generation
C.the ability to successfully pass on transmutations to offspring
D.all of the above
E.answers A and B only
Q:
Darwin delayed publication of his theory of natural selection because:
A.the theory conflicted with his wife's religious beliefs
B.he knew the theory would be perceived as a threat to the status quo
C.he did not believe he had enough data to support his hypothesis
D.all of the above
E.only A and B
Q:
Wallace's development of the theory of evolution through natural selection was influenced by:
A.his work as a naturalist aboard the H.M.S. Beagle
B.his upper class upbringing in the home of intellectually curious parents
C.collecting plant and animal specimens on the Malay Peninsula
D.observing fossil species in South America
E.his work as a livestock breeder in England
Q:
The fact that individuals who possess favorable variations are more likely to survive and reproduce than those who possess less favorable traits is the basis for the theory of:
A.uniformitarianism
B.natural selection
C.inheritance of acquired characteristics
D.catastrophism
E.fixity of species
Q:
In formulating his theory of natural selection, Darwin recognized that:
A.biological variation within a species was important
B.applied his knowledge of domestic species to undomesticated ones
C.appreciated the fact that population size is limited by the availability of food
D.all of these
E.none of these
Q:
According to Darwin's concept of natural selection, which of the following factors is most closely tied to genetic change through time in a species?
A.the regular process of mutation
B.differential reproductive success
C.climatic change
D.biological continuity
E.none of these
Q:
Which of the following is the cause of the competition between individuals that is a central part of Darwin's theory of evolution?
A.the natural aggressive tendencies of most species
B.the influence of humans on the natural environment
C.the natural tendency for organisms to reproduce at a faster rate than resources
D.competition between species for the right to reproduce
E.all of these
Q:
Which of the following was central in the development of Darwin's theory of natural selection?
A.his observation of the similarities between South American and Galapagos birds and vegetation
B.published reports on the adaptive shift in peppered moth coloration
C.his extensive experience collecting dinosaur fossils in Patagonia
D.his knowledge of the process of producing plant hybrids
E.all of these
Q:
Which of the following best describes the intellectual environment in which Darwin and Wallace developed the theories of evolution through natural selection?
A.Ideas of biological change were firmly rooted in the notion of the fixity of species.
B.Many of their basic concepts were already accepted in the scientific community.
C.Their ideas represented a major break from accepted ideas of evolution.
D.Their ideas only became fully accepted after the publication of Lyell's work.
E.only A and C
Q:
Prior to the late 19th century, what term or phrase was typically used to discuss the concept of evolution?
A.fixity of species
B.mutation
C.biological continuity
D.uniformitarianism
E.transmutation
Q:
Which of the following definitions best describes the concept of uniformitarianism as proposed by Lyell?
A.All species have evolved at a relatively uniform rate.
B.The earth was uniformly stable as created by a divine entity.
C.The earth was too young for evolution to have produced significant changes.
D.The geological processes that operated in the past are still occurring in the present.
E.only A and C
Q:
The view that extinction and the appearance of more modern forms can be explained by series of disasters is known as:
A.natural selection
B.catastrophism
C.use-disuse
D.uniformitarianism
E.fixity of species
Q:
Lyell's concept of deep time and the extended antiquity of the earth was influential on Darwin's development of natural selection because:
A.it introduced the idea that organisms and their environment were interrelated
B.it refuted the idea of fixity of species
C.it made speciation through gradual change possible
D.all of these
E.none of these
Q:
The work of Thomas Malthus was of central importance for Darwin and Wallace due to the fact that he:
A.applied the concept of uniformitarianism to establish the concept of deep time
B.refuted the notion of fixity of species
C.proposed that overpopulation would inevitably lead to competition for resources
D.argued that all life on earth was the result of common ancestry
E.applied the first successful taxonomic model to biological organisms
Q:
Lamark's contributions to the study of evolution include:
A.the definition of the term 'biology'
B.recognition of the dynamic relationship between environment and organisms
C.the inheritance of acquired characteristics
D.all of the above
E.only B and C