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Question
Which source of conflict results when geographical boundaries or lines of authority are unclear?a. Competition of resources
b. Task interdependence
c. Jurisdictional ambiguity
d. Communication barriers
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 1 characters.
Related questions
Q:
Knowledge, skill, ability, and personality are types of:
a. competencies
b. job factors
c. job functions
d. compensable factors
Q:
Which of the following is not true of job titles?
a. Titles should describe the nature of a job
b. Job titles can affect perceptions of job status
c. Titles provide workers with identity
d. All three of these statements are true
Q:
Job analysis can serve as a foundation for:
a. selecting employees
b. training employees
c. evaluating employees' performance
d. all of these and more
Q:
What are the three reasons your book listed for why you should be interested in research?
Q:
If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = 1.27 between two variables, you would conclude that there is a(n):
a. high correlation
b. very low correlation
c. error in the calculation
d. moderately low positive correlation
Q:
The level of statistical significance that we use in psychology is:
a. .01
b. .05
c. .10
d. .50
Q:
A large research sample is nice to have, however, it may not be necessary if the experimenter can choose a ______ sample and control for many of the ______ variables.
a. random / extraneous
b. extraneous / random
c. representative / nuisance
d. homogeneous / confounding
Q:
The statistical "averaging" of effect sizes across previous empirical studies defines:
a. experimental research
b. meta-analysis
c. correlational research
d. archival research
Q:
An effect size (d) of .20 is considered:
a. small
b. large
c. moderate
d. significant
Q:
The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is the ________ variable.
a. independent
b. dependent
c. intervening
d. control
Q:
The Harvard Business Review is an example of a:
a. journal
b. trade magazine
c. magazine
d. bridge publication
Q:
I/O Psychology is a branch of psychology that _____ in the workplace.
a. treats psychological disorders
b. applies the principles of psychology
c. provides therapy to employees
d. all of these equally define I/O psychology
Q:
Interviews that contain only past-focused interview questions are also known as:
a. situational interviews
b. patterned behavior description interviews
c. unstructured interviews
d. structured interviews
Q:
"Suppose that an angry customer started yelling at you in front of other customers. What would you do?" This type of interview question is an example of a:
a. disqualifier
b. clarifier
c. future-focused (situational) question
d. past-focused question
Q:
What is the first step in constructing a structured interview?
a. Writing questions
b. Creating a scoring key
c. Conducting a job analysis
d. Removing primacy effects
Q:
The majority of the evidence regarding physical attractiveness indicates that, in general, _______ applicants have an advantage over _______ applicants.
a. more attractive / less attractive
b. less attractive / more attractive
c. average looking / very attractive
d. none of the above
Q:
An applicant who looks around the interviewer's office and pays close attention to such items as pictures and plaques probably has a good understanding of the role ________ plays in their interview score.
a. interviewee appearance
b. negative information bias
c. interviewer-interviewee similarity
d. lack of job relatedness
Q:
Which of the following factors would suggest emphasizing your strengths and concealing your weaknesses in an interview?
a. Primacy effects
b. Contrast effects
c. Negative information bias
d. Nonverbal cues
Q:
The most effective realistic job previews (RJPs) are presented in a(n) ______ format.
a. written
b. oral
c. multimedia
d. presentation mode does not matter
Q:
Realistic job previews involve telling potential applicants the ____ a job with an objective of increasing _____.
a. positive aspects of / applications
b. positive aspects of / referrals
c. truth about / performance
d. truth about / tenure
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of employer-based websites for recruitment?
a. Applicants can apply for jobs online
b. Applicants can take employment tests online
c. Applicants can be immediately screened
d. All three are advantages
Q:
Direct mail recruiting works best for positions involving:
a. low skill levels
b. temporary work
c. specialized skills
d. part-time work
Q:
One of the concessionaires in Yellowstone National Park offers its employees a financial incentive for recommending applicants who are subsequently hired and remain on the job for a specific period of time. This BEST exemplifies:
a. internal recruitment
b. external recruitment
c. an employee referral program
d. a situation-wanted recruitment approach
Q:
Compared to employment agencies, executive search firms:
a. are not ethical
b. charge lower fees
c. charge higher fees
d. are more likely to charge the applicant
Q:
What are the three major affirmative action strategies?
Q:
When rendering decisions involving the 4th Amendment, as it applies to drug testing,courts have based their decisions on all of the following factors except:
a. reasonable suspicion of drug use
b. adverse impact
c. safety and trust of the public
d. the opportunity to retest a specimen
Q:
An employment practice resulting in adverse impact may still be legal as long as:
a. the test used was job related
b. there was no intent to discriminate
c. neither of the two options is true
d. both of the options are true
Q:
The courts have clearly ruled that a customer's satisfaction and/or preference ________ used to determine if a job requirement is a BFOQ.
a. should be
b. must be
c. cannot be
d. the courts haven't ruled on this issue
Q:
If a job can only be performed by a person in a particular class, the requirement is considered:
a. a BFOQ
b. restrictive
c. discriminatory
d. to be none of these three choices
Q:
Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define disability in part as "having a record of such impairment." Which of the following "disabilities" would qualify under this part of the definition?
a. blindness
b. severe burns
c. asthma
d. recovering alcoholics