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Question
_____ is a piecemeal response to circumstances as they develop.a. Planned change
b. Programmed change
c. Premeditated change
d. Natural change
e. Reactive change
Answer
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Related questions
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Discuss the contents of the Equal Employment Opportunity Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
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_____ is defined as determining the extent to which a selection device is really predictive of future job performance.
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_____ is the process of dealing with employees who are represented by a union.
a. Labor relations
b. Public relations
c. Human relations
d. Operational management
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Organizations with a diverse workforce:
a. have fewer training needs.
b. find it difficult to gain competitive advantages.
c. tend to have low productivity.
d. tend to have conflicts.
e. find it difficult to understand different market segments.
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Which of the following is an effective individual strategy for managing diversity?
a. Using micromanagement techniques for managing minority groups
b. Limiting interpersonal communication
c. Fostering tolerance
d. Treating everyone the same without regard for their fundamental human differences
e. Forming culturally and ethnically homogenous work teams
Q:
_____ are usually set up through a procedure called job evaluationan attempt to assess the worth of each job relative to other jobs.
a. Wage-level policies
b. Wage structures
c. Individual wage policies
d. Wage level decisions
e. Individual-benefit structures
Q:
The Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is _____.
a. a method used for the validation of a selection device
b. an objective method of performance appraisal
c. a judgmental method of performance appraisal
d. a job training technique
e. a job analysis technique
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a. training methods
b. predictive validation methods
c. content validation methods
d. judgmental performance appraisal criteria
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a. job rotation
b. job specialization
c. development
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The _____ suggests that appropriate managerial behavior in a given situation depends on unique elements in a that situation.
a. behavioral management perspective
b. quantitative management perspective
c. systems perspective
d. contingency perspective
e. universal perspective
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In the context of the systems perspective, an output would be:
a. technological processes.
b. labor skills.
c. services.
d. raw materials.
e. human resources.
Q:
_____ is considered to be a form of applied management science.
a. Scientific management
b. Lean manufacturing
c. Behavioral management
d. Human relations movement
e. Operations management
Q:
A difference between Theory X and Theory Y is that:
a. Theory X makes positive assumptions.
b. Theory Y is consistent with the views of scientific management.
c. Theory Y assumes that people lack ambition.
d. Theory Y represents the assumptions made by human relations advocates.
e. Theory Y assumes that people naturally dislike work.
Q:
Which of the following focuses on the management of the entire firm as opposed to the jobs of individual workers?
a. The Contingency theory
b. Scientific management
c. Administrative management
d. Theory X
e. The Hawthorne studies
Q:
_____ refer to a manager's ability to prioritize work, to work efficiently, and to delegate work appropriately.
a. Diagnostic skills
b. Commanding skills
c. Decision-making skills
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a. mechanical
b. technical
c. diagnostic
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The final phase of the management process is _____ that involves monitoring the organization's progress toward its goals.
a. planning
b. organizing
c. leading
d. controlling
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_____ are concerned with creating and managing the systems that create an organization's products and services.
a. Marketing managers
b. Human resources managers
c. Financial managers
d. Operations managers
e. First-line managers
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Typical responsibilities of operations managers include:a. inventory control.b. sales promotion.c. accounting.d. employee development.e. benefit systems development.
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_____ are probably the largest group of managers in most organizations, and are primarily responsible for implementing the policies and plans of an organization.
a. Middle managers
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c. The members of board of directors
d. First-line managers
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A common middle-management title is:
a. chief executive officer.
b. division head.
c. supervisor.
d. office manager.
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c. Brainstorming
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A disadvantage of group decision making is that:
a. groupthink may occur.
b. generation of different opinions does not occur.
c. communication may be curbed.
d. knowledge available is always limited.
e. only a few alternatives are likely to be generated.
Q:
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c. Risk propensity
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e. Intuitive rationality
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a. optimization
b. escalation of commitment
c. an evidence-based decision
d. satisficing
e. a decision under uncertainty
Q:
Political forces, intuition and escalation of commitment, risk propensity, and ethics constitute the _____ aspects of decision making.
a. rational
b. administrative
c. classical
d. behavioral
e. sequential
Q:
Delta Corp. introduced a new set of policies, giving its employees more flexibility in work timings. This decision was made in response to complaints from employees about fatigue. Which step of the rational decision-making process is illustrated in the scenario?
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b. Evaluating the possible alternatives
c. Selecting the alternative
d. Implementing an alternative
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Q:
The rational decision-making process:
a. begins when a decision maker chooses the best solution.
b. involves the evaluation of different alternatives.
c. ends when alternatives have been identified.
d. does not include the implementation of an alternative.
e. ends when a decision situation has been defined.