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Question
Individuals high in _____ regulate their expressive self-presentation for the sake of desired public appearances, and thus are highly responsive to social and interpersonal cues of situationally appropriate performances.
A. self-monitoring
B. self-confidence
C. self-efficacy
D. self-evaluation
E. self-esteem
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about Type A behavior?
A. Type A people prefer to only concentrate on one thing at a time.
B. Type A people experience greater increase in cardiovascular activity from tasks requiring physical work than Type B people.
C. Type A people develop nervous tics or characteristic gesture.
D. Type A individuals tend to be unusually attentive to their surroundings during daily activities.
E. The only way Type A individuals can prevent health problems is by quitting work.
Q:
_____ in individuals with hardiness reflects the extent to which an individual is involved in whatever he or she is doing.
A. High self-esteem
B. Endurance
C. Achievement
D. Commitment
E. Extraversion
Q:
_____ involves providing financial aid, material resources, or needed services.
A. Esteem support
B. Informational support
C. Social companionship
D. Instrumental support
E. Global support
Q:
Kira is upset with John for not doing his share of the work on their project. She decides to talk to him about his contribution. What coping strategy is Kira using to deal with stress?
A. Control strategy
B. Escape strategy
C. Symptom management strategy
D. Flight strategy
E. Fight strategy
Q:
Sexual harassment experiences and bullying represent _____ stressors
A. individual-level
B. extraorganizational
C. organizational
D. group-level
E. behavioral levels
Q:
Which of the following is another generic approach for reducing resistance?
A. Employee role modeling
B. Education
C. Employee participation
D. Team negotiation
E. Self-efficacy training
Q:
Which of the following is true of organization development (OD)?
A. It involves a relatively minor restructuring of the current organizational culture.
B. OD consultants prefer institutional controls and autocratic management styles.
C. OD consultants focus on the content and not the form of behavioral dealings.
D. OD specialists focus solely on problem solving issues.
E. It possesses the same diagnostic focus associated with the systems model of change.
Q:
According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves helping employees integrate the new behavior into their normal way of doing things.
A. changing
B. settling
C. refreezing
D. unfreezing
E. converting
Q:
According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves providing employees with new information, new behavioral models, or new ways of looking at things.
A. refreezing
B. changing
C. settling
D. unfreezing
E. converting
Q:
Reintroducing a familiar practice is an example of _____ change.
A. adaptive
B. strategic
C. radical
D. innovative
E. functional
Q:
The four most frequently used stress-reduction techniques are muscle relaxation, biofeedback, meditation, and cognitive restructuring.
Q:
Hardiness represents a collection of personality characteristics including commitment, locus of control, and challenge.
Q:
A secondary appraisal occurs only in response to a stressful primary appraisal and results in categorizing a situation or stressor as irrelevant, positive, or stressful.
Q:
Stress is something that should be avoided at all costs and efforts need to be directed at somehow escaping it altogether.
Q:
While the rest of the academia is suffering from labor shortages, Southwestern University averages five applicants for every position opening. With this ratio of applicants to openings, the university can pick and choose from among the top candidates. Southwestern University is successful according to which organizational effectiveness criterion?
A. Resource acquisition
B. Internal processes
C. External processes
D. Goal accomplishment
E. Strategic constituencies satisfaction
Q:
_____ is defined as "a dynamic, interactive influence process among individuals in groups for which the objective is to lead one another to the achievement of group or organizational goals or both.
A. Transactional leadership
B. Contingency leadership
C. Trait leadership
D. Shared leadership
E. Path-goal leadership
Q:
According to the leader-member exchange model of leadership, in-group exchanges are characterized by mutual _____.
A. need for power
B. trust
C. need for achievement
D. dislike
E. transactions
Q:
_____ encompasses the fundamental managerial activities of setting goals, monitoring progress toward goal achievement, and rewarding and punishing people for their level of goal accomplishment.
A. Transformational leadership
B. Trait leadership
C. In-group leadership
D. Transactional leadership
E. Out-group leadership
Q:
_____ leadership represents a general failure to take responsibility for leading.
A. Transactional
B. Transformational
C. Trait
D. Contingency
E. Laissez-faire
Q:
According to _____, leader behavior is acceptable when employees view it as a source of satisfaction.
A. Graen's leader-member exchange model
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership theory
C. House's path-goal theory
D. Fiedler's contingency model
E. Stogdill's trait theory
Q:
Leader-member relations, task structure, and position power are concepts associated with _____.
A. Stogdill's Trait Theory
B. Fiedler's Contingency Model
C. House's Path-Goal Theory
D. Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory
E. the Leader-Member Exchange Model
Q:
Managers should not assume that people are consciously resisting change when they are trying to implement change.
Q:
Change programs are more successful when they are geared toward meeting long-term results rather than short-term results.
Q:
According to the systems model of change, any change, no matter how large or small, has a cascading effect throughout an organization.
Q:
Benchmarking is a process by which a company compares its performance with that of high-performing organizations.
Q:
Internal forces for change come from both human resource problems and managerial behavior/decisions.
Q:
Which of the following is true of a hollow, modular, or virtual organization?
A. They tap people in particular specialties.
B. They exercise control on operations that are outsourced.
C. They find it difficult to focus on their customers or products.
D. The outsourcing adds to the organization's labor costs.
E. They decrease the efficiency and increase the duplication of work.
Q:
Which of the following is true of horizontal organization designs?
A. They generally hamper coordination and communication in organizations.
B. It makes it difficult for cross-functional teams to arrive at creative solutions for problems.
C. The teams' speed and efficiency while developing new products slows down considerably.
D. They rarely leave any scope for knowledge sharing.
E. They require employees who can rise to the challenges of empowerment.
Q:
Which of the following is true of functional structures?
A. They increase employee's focus on customers and products.
B. They give managers the flexibility to make decisions that affect several functions.
C. They can save money by grouping together people who need similar materials and equipment.
D. Quality standards suffer a setback because supervisors rarely understand what department members do.
E. They perform to their optimum capacity in an unstable environment.
Q:
Organic organizations have:
A. rigid networks.
B. inelastic bureaucracies.
C. strict rules.
D. narrowly defined tasks.
E. decentralized decision making.