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Question
Feedback is most effective when it focuses on an employee's ______ and the supervisor explains how the behavior impacts _____ .a. behavior / others
b. personality / the employee
c. behavior / the employee
d. personality / others
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Knowledge, skill, ability, and personality are types of:
a. competencies
b. job factors
c. job functions
d. compensable factors
Q:
Which of the following is not true of job titles?
a. Titles should describe the nature of a job
b. Job titles can affect perceptions of job status
c. Titles provide workers with identity
d. All three of these statements are true
Q:
Job analysis can serve as a foundation for:
a. selecting employees
b. training employees
c. evaluating employees' performance
d. all of these and more
Q:
What are the three reasons your book listed for why you should be interested in research?
Q:
If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = 1.27 between two variables, you would conclude that there is a(n):
a. high correlation
b. very low correlation
c. error in the calculation
d. moderately low positive correlation
Q:
The level of statistical significance that we use in psychology is:
a. .01
b. .05
c. .10
d. .50
Q:
A large research sample is nice to have, however, it may not be necessary if the experimenter can choose a ______ sample and control for many of the ______ variables.
a. random / extraneous
b. extraneous / random
c. representative / nuisance
d. homogeneous / confounding
Q:
The statistical "averaging" of effect sizes across previous empirical studies defines:
a. experimental research
b. meta-analysis
c. correlational research
d. archival research
Q:
An effect size (d) of .20 is considered:
a. small
b. large
c. moderate
d. significant
Q:
The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is the ________ variable.
a. independent
b. dependent
c. intervening
d. control
Q:
The Harvard Business Review is an example of a:
a. journal
b. trade magazine
c. magazine
d. bridge publication
Q:
I/O Psychology is a branch of psychology that _____ in the workplace.
a. treats psychological disorders
b. applies the principles of psychology
c. provides therapy to employees
d. all of these equally define I/O psychology
Q:
Interviews that contain only past-focused interview questions are also known as:
a. situational interviews
b. patterned behavior description interviews
c. unstructured interviews
d. structured interviews
Q:
"Suppose that an angry customer started yelling at you in front of other customers. What would you do?" This type of interview question is an example of a:
a. disqualifier
b. clarifier
c. future-focused (situational) question
d. past-focused question
Q:
What is the first step in constructing a structured interview?
a. Writing questions
b. Creating a scoring key
c. Conducting a job analysis
d. Removing primacy effects
Q:
The majority of the evidence regarding physical attractiveness indicates that, in general, _______ applicants have an advantage over _______ applicants.
a. more attractive / less attractive
b. less attractive / more attractive
c. average looking / very attractive
d. none of the above
Q:
An applicant who looks around the interviewer's office and pays close attention to such items as pictures and plaques probably has a good understanding of the role ________ plays in their interview score.
a. interviewee appearance
b. negative information bias
c. interviewer-interviewee similarity
d. lack of job relatedness
Q:
Which of the following factors would suggest emphasizing your strengths and concealing your weaknesses in an interview?
a. Primacy effects
b. Contrast effects
c. Negative information bias
d. Nonverbal cues
Q:
The most effective realistic job previews (RJPs) are presented in a(n) ______ format.
a. written
b. oral
c. multimedia
d. presentation mode does not matter
Q:
Realistic job previews involve telling potential applicants the ____ a job with an objective of increasing _____.
a. positive aspects of / applications
b. positive aspects of / referrals
c. truth about / performance
d. truth about / tenure
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of employer-based websites for recruitment?
a. Applicants can apply for jobs online
b. Applicants can take employment tests online
c. Applicants can be immediately screened
d. All three are advantages
Q:
Direct mail recruiting works best for positions involving:
a. low skill levels
b. temporary work
c. specialized skills
d. part-time work
Q:
One of the concessionaires in Yellowstone National Park offers its employees a financial incentive for recommending applicants who are subsequently hired and remain on the job for a specific period of time. This BEST exemplifies:
a. internal recruitment
b. external recruitment
c. an employee referral program
d. a situation-wanted recruitment approach
Q:
Compared to employment agencies, executive search firms:
a. are not ethical
b. charge lower fees
c. charge higher fees
d. are more likely to charge the applicant
Q:
What are the three major affirmative action strategies?
Q:
When rendering decisions involving the 4th Amendment, as it applies to drug testing,courts have based their decisions on all of the following factors except:
a. reasonable suspicion of drug use
b. adverse impact
c. safety and trust of the public
d. the opportunity to retest a specimen
Q:
An employment practice resulting in adverse impact may still be legal as long as:
a. the test used was job related
b. there was no intent to discriminate
c. neither of the two options is true
d. both of the options are true
Q:
The courts have clearly ruled that a customer's satisfaction and/or preference ________ used to determine if a job requirement is a BFOQ.
a. should be
b. must be
c. cannot be
d. the courts haven't ruled on this issue
Q:
If a job can only be performed by a person in a particular class, the requirement is considered:
a. a BFOQ
b. restrictive
c. discriminatory
d. to be none of these three choices
Q:
Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define disability in part as "having a record of such impairment." Which of the following "disabilities" would qualify under this part of the definition?
a. blindness
b. severe burns
c. asthma
d. recovering alcoholics