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Question
Describe one example of when a trials-to-criterion method could be used to evaluate outcome.
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Name and describe four ways to transfer stimulus control from prompts to natural stimuli.
Q:
Explain two ways in which motivating operations and discriminative stimuli are similar. Then explain how they are different.
Q:
Transfer of stimulus control from prompts to naturally occurring stimuli is accomplished through stimulus equivalence training.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of stimulus fading?
A. Taking a line drawing of a bed and slowly changing it into the letters b-e-d to help a child learn to read the word bed.
B. Most-to-least prompting.
C. Printing a childs name on a piece of paper and having him trace his name. Over time, slowly remove one letter of his name, thus requiring him to trace the first letters but to print the last letters himself.
D. All of these are examples of stimulus fading.
Q:
Stimulus equivalence:
A. Means that two stimuli share a number of common features.
B. Is important to the development of stimulus discrimination.
C. Means that a person responds accurately to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following training on different stimulus-stimulus relations.
D. Requires testing of reflexivity, symmetry, and commonality.
Q:
A discriminative stimulus is:
A. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced.
B. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.
C. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be placed on extinction.
D. A stimulus that cues respondent behaviors to occur.
Q:
Conditioned motivating operations (CMOs) have:
A. Value-altering motivating effects that are unlearned
B. Behavior-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
C. Behavior-altering effects that are unlearned
D. Value-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
Q:
Dimensions of value altering effects are:
A. Limited to frequency
B. Includes frequency, magnitude, & latency
C. Includes frequency & magnitude but not latency
D. Includes frequency & latency but not magnitude
Q:
An abative effect refers to:
A. A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
B. An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
C. No effect in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
D. A combination of decreasing and increasing effects in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
Q:
_____ A necessary component of the fair pair rule.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ Reinforcers that can be lost during a response cost procedure.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. If time-out does not result in a decreased probability of the target behavior occurring it is still considered punishment.
Q:
The key difference between noncexclusion and exclusion time-out is:
E. With nonexcluion time-out the individual is not totally removed from the instructional environment.
F. There are no differences, they both result in the same effect on behavior.
G. With exclusion time-out the individual is at least partially removed from the instructional environment.
H. A and C.
Q:
Punishment by contingent removal of a stimulus is also known as:
E. Negative reinforcement.
F. Negative punishment.
G. Type II punishment.
H. Positive punishment.
I. All of the above.
J. A,B,C only.
K. B and C only.
Q:
_____ A phenomenon in which the change in one component of a
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer(s) for each of the following statements. Answers may be used once, several times, or not at all.
A. Side effects of punishment
B. Procedural guideline for the use of punishment
C. Factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment.
D. Positive punishment
E. Ethical guideline for the use of punishment
F. Behavioral contrast
multiple schedule that increases or decreases the rate of responding on that component is accompanied by a change in the response rate in the opposite direction on the other, unaltered component of the schedule.
Q:
_____ Reinforcement for the target behavior
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer(s) for each of the following statements. Answers may be used once, several times, or not at all.
A. Side effects of punishment
B. Procedural guideline for the use of punishment
C. Factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment.
D. Positive punishment
E. Ethical guideline for the use of punishment
F. Behavioral contrast
Q:
Explain what is meant by a scallop effect and when you would expect to see it.
Q:
_____ A VI schedule of reinforcement tends to produce a constant, stable rate of response.
Q:
A post reinforcement pause is when
A. The subject demands delivery of reinforcement
B. The subject speeds up responses to quicken the delivery of reinforcement
C. The subject does not respond for a period of time following reinforcement
D. The subject indefinitely refuses to respond after the delivery of reinforcement
Q:
A major goal of most behavior change programs is the development of
A. Naturally occurring activities
B. Stimuli
C. Events to function as reinforcement
D. All the above
Q:
Give a novel example of an unconditioned negative reinforcer and of a conditioned negative reinforcer.
Q:
Compare and contrast negative reinforcement and punishment.
Q:
Give an example of an escape contingency. In your answer, be sure to identify all 4 components of the contingency.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. To maximize the effectiveness of negative reinforcement for a given response, it is important that there is a great difference in the level of stimulation present before the response as compared to after the response.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Joey forgot to clean his room before leaving for school. When he returned from school in the afternoon, he quickly cleaned his room before his mother came home to avoid a reprimand from her. A reprimand, in this case, can be considered an unconditioned negative reinforcer.
Q:
Negative reinforcement can be differentiated from punishment by carefully attending to the role of the aversive stimulus. In a negative reinforcement contingency, the aversive stimulus , whereas in a punishment contingency, the aversive stimulus .
A. Is presented following the target behavior; is removed following the target behavior.
B. Is removed following the target behavior; is present before the target behavior occurs.
C. Is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior; is removed following the target behavior.
D. Is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior; is presented following the target behavior.
Q:
What is the difference between a preference assessment and a reinforcer assessment?
Q:
Explain automatic reinforcement and provide a novel example of it.
Q:
If one wants to determine the effectiveness of a stimulus as a reinforcer as the requirements to earn that reinforcer change over time, which assessment method would be most appropriate?a) Concurrent schedule assessmentb) Multiple schedule assessmentc) Progressive-ratio schedule assessmentd) Paired stimulus assessment
Q:
If one compares the effects of response dependent delivery of a stimulus to a response independent schedule delivery of a stimulus to analyze whether or not the stimulus serves as a reinforcer, which assessment method is one using?
a) Concurrent schedule assessment
b) Multiple schedule assessment
c) Progressive-ratio schedule assessment
d) Paired stimulus assessment