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Question
Define and explain proxemics and the four physical distance zones.
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Which would NOT be appropriate to include in a speaker's conclusion?
a. Use a phrase like "In summary"
b. Introduce new material
c. Leave a memorable impact
d. Summarize main points
Q:
Which speech organizational pattern shows how events lead to specific outcomes?
a. Problem-solution
b. Cause-effect pattern
c. Chronological
d. Topical
Q:
Explain the primary difference between a captive and a voluntary audience.
Q:
Explain the difference between a primary and a secondary resource.
Q:
Which of these is a complete sentence summarizing the goal of your speech?
a. General purpose statement
b. Concept map
c. Specific purpose statement
d. Social bookmark
Q:
When Paulina reflectively considers the connection of her speech to an audience, she is engaging in audience analysis.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of these is an effective specific purpose statement?
a. To inform my audience on three reasons to buy a laptop and the four best statistical programs available for laptop computers
b. To pay tribute
c. To persuade the audience that the Internet internet can have three positive effects on society
d. Children and the Internetinternet
Q:
Googling a topic is the best way to conduct online research.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In evaluating one's sources, it is important to consider all of these factors EXCEPT
a. relevancy.
b. currency.
c. objectivity.
d. information load.
Q:
Which of these is NOT an integral part of planning your research strategy?
a. Drawing on personal knowledge
b. Talking with a friend
c. Talking with a librarian
d. Documenting your research findings
Q:
In what step of the speech planning process do you plan your outline, including both an introduction and conclusion?
a. Think
b. Investigate
c. Compose
d. Rehearse
Q:
A source has consensual validation when
a. it is found on the web.
b. other sources use information similar to yours.
c. you rely on .com sites.
d. others have not used your sources.
Q:
Identify two types of conflict.
Q:
Generating ideas with a team of people to solve a problem is called
a. consensus.
b. structured problem-solving.
c. decision making.
d. group brainstorming.
Q:
Evaluative language is an example of a defensive communication response. What alternative type of behavior should you use in a supportive communication response?
a. Controlling messages
b. You" statements
c. Neutrality
d. Descriptive language
Q:
The ability to influence and direct others to meet group goals defines
a. groupthink.
b. leadership.
c. problem solving
d. decision making
Q:
In which leadership style do leaders provide little direction or structure for their teams?
a. Laissez-faire
b. Autocratic
c. Supportive
d. Democratic
Q:
All of these are among the most common problems in leading and conducting meetings EXCEPT
a. participants get off topic.
b. no clear agenda is defined.
c. meetings take too long.
d. leaders must take responsibility for planning.
Q:
Disagreements about the group's tasks, procedures, or decision options are called (a)
a. substantive conflict.
b. affective conflict.
c. groupthink.
d. defensive climate.
Q:
In which step of the structured problem-solving process would team members be most prone to groupthink?
a. Establish criteria for a decision
b. Choose the best decision
c. Discuss possible solutions
d. Define and analyze the problem
Q:
Even though Bob is chair of the reunion committee, he lets the group make decisions and take action. Which leadership style is Bob using?
a. Democratic
b. Situational
c. Laissez-faire
d. Functional
Q:
Garth wear his earbuds and listens to music on his phone while his group meets. He moves to the music and sometimes even sings along. He does not participate in the group's discussions, and several members have complained to the group leader that his behavior is distracting. What group role is Garth fulfilling?
a. Argumentative role
b. Task role
c. Maintenance role
d. Egocentric role
Q:
Aristotle's term for credibility was
a. pathos.
b. ethos.
c. character.
d. charisma.
Q:
Identify the three types of propositions on which persuasive speeches can be based.
Q:
Explain the four guidelines for preparing a persuasive presentation.
Q:
Phrases that remove responsibility for a statement are called
a. disclaimers.
b. hedging.
c. intensifiers.
d. fillers.
Q:
Which refers to how loud or quietly one speaks?
a. Vocal tone
b. Vocal volume
c. Vocal rate
d. Vocal pitch
Q:
Angelique has to make a presentation to the board of trustees and include precise statistics to convey her points. She is particularly concerned with the accuracy of her supporting materials. What style of delivery would be most appropriate for her context?
a. Impromptu
b. Memorized
c. Extemporaneous
d. Manuscript
Q:
Speakers should avoid the overuse of vocalized pauses and fillers such as um and ah.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Susan relies heavily on the use of vocalized pauses and fillers in her presentations. How is her audience likely to judge her speeches?
a. They are likely not to notice.
b. They are likely to see her as more like them.
c. They are likely to have a negative impression.
d. They are likely to like her more.