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Question
According to surveys, which of the following is NOT considered a type of simulated learning?A) virtual reality games
B) monthly job rotations
C) step-by-step animated guides
D) software with screenshots and interactive prompts
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 343 characters.
Related questions
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe the contingent workforce of an organization?
A) part-time employees
B) just-in-time workers
C) collateral employees
D) temporary workers
Q:
When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________.
A) attracting attention to the ad
B) developing interest in the job
C) prompting applicant action
D) implying applicant challenges
Q:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of filling open positions with inside candidates?
Q:
When seeking internal candidates, managers are likely to use ________ to find employees with the necessary requirements for open positions.
A) job postings
B) labor forecasts
C) qualifications skills banks
D) recruiting yield pyramids
Q:
Explain how application forms, qualifications inventories, and personnel replacement charts help HR managers predict an individual's job performance.
Q:
In a brief essay, explain how strategic planning relates to both employment planning and recruiting.
Q:
Personnel planning is called succession planning when referring to the process of filling jobs like that of accounting clerk, data analyst, or administrative assistant.
Q:
A scatter plot is a personnel forecasting method that analyzes a firm's past employment needs to predict future needs.
Q:
Ratio analysis and trend analysis are rarely used to forecast personnel needs because they are complicated methods that produce historically unreliable results.
Q:
Employment planning should be an integral part of a firm's strategic and HR planning process.
Q:
What was a result of Valero Energy implementing a labor supply chain to monitor recruitment and hiring?
A) reduced hiring costs
B) increased internal hires
C) reduced need for recruiting yield pyramids
D) increased use of organizational development
Q:
Which term refers to paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues?
A) talent management and development
B) predictive workforce monitoring
C) strategic personnel planning
D) external labor forecasting
Q:
What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process?
A) assessing training requirements
B) forecasting employment needs
C) developing job applications
D) building an applicant pool
Q:
The process of making forecasts based on the relationship between some causal factor like sales volume and the number of employees required is called ________.
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
D) computer analysis
Q:
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered by employers during the process of workforce planning?
A) personnel needs
B) organizational culture
C) supply of inside candidates
D) supply of outside candidates
Q:
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs.
A) organizational chart
B) recruitment process
C) marketing plan
D) strategic plan
Q:
In a brief essay, discuss how EEO laws affect both recruitment and the information requested on job application forms.
Q:
An observable and measurable human behavior or skill that makes job performance possible is known as a(n) ________.
A) competency
B) attribute
C) trait
D) task
Q:
According to research, what is the LEAST likely factor that determines CEO pay?
A) ability to pay
B) job complexity
C) job evaluation
D) human capital
Q:
Employers today are finding that they do not have the blanket right to fire employees.
Q:
During a merger and acquisition, it is especially important for managers to be sensitive to employees who are dismissed so that ________.
A) lawsuits stemming from ADA and OSHA violations can be avoided
B) remaining employees will remain productive and committed
C) exit interviews will reveal positive details about the firm
D) bumped employees can continue being promoted
Q:
Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination?
A) unsatisfactory performance
B) whistle blowing
C) misconduct
D) disregard
Q:
Dismissal based on unsatisfactory performance is most appropriate if an employee ________.
A) shows an adverse attitude towards co-workers
B) fails to accomplish tasks despite diligence
C) acts in an insubordinate manner
D) steals the employer's property
Q:
Under the public policy exception to the termination at will doctrine, courts have held that ________.
A) discharge is wrongful when it is against an explicit, well-established law
B) even in the absence of a written document, an implied contract existed based on representations in the employee handbook
C) employers should not fire employees without good cause
D) persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job is reason for dismissal
Q:
What are traditional and modern ways that organizations measure competence for the purpose of promotions? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each.
Q:
Promotions at most private firms are based on competence rather than seniority, but public sector job promotions emphasize seniority over competence.
Q:
What is the most likely reason that retirement planning is increasingly important to firms?
A) rising number of acquisitions
B) changes in federal employment laws
C) concerns about future labor shortages
D) rising need for cost containment strategies
Q:
Which of the following is most likely important in a firm that has informal promotion processes?
A) employee qualification data banks
B) nine-box assessments
C) job posting policies
D) networking skills
Q:
In most private firms, what is the typical measure of competence when determining promotions?
A) performance potential
B) cognitive skills tests
C) past performance
D) assessment centers
Q:
Frequent absences, daydreaming, and undeserved work breaks are examples of job withdrawal.