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Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)?
A. The RCRA accomplishes proper disposal of hazardous wastes through the point-source system.
B. The RCRA moves the handling of toxic wastes away from burial on land to treatments that destroy or permanently detoxify wastes.
C. The RCRA is exempted from the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) from maintaining any records or a penalty system for failure to comply with the provisions of the act.
D. The RCRA was created primarily to provide financial assistance to local governments.
E. The RCRA lacks investigatory powers but maintains executory powers.
Q:
Opinion research indicates that the publics highest concern regarding regulation of industry is
A. expansion of industry into protected areas.
B. control of toxic and hazardous chemicals.
C. movement of industry to less-regulated countries.
D. land encroachment in national parks.
E. the transfer of toxic materials to developing countries.
Q:
Under the Endangered Species Act, the right to declare a species as endangered rests with the
A. director of the Environmental Protection Agency.
B. governors of states where the species habitat is located.
C. Secretary of the Interior.
D. president.
E. upper house of the U.S Congress.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act?
A. It requires the registration and labeling of agricultural pesticides.
B. It requires the licensing of operators using pesticides.
C. It prohibits the use of pesticides near schools.
D. It takes into account the economic and environmental costs and benefits of the use of any pesticide, but neglects the social impact.
E. It applies to pesticides that U.S. manufacturers ship to foreign countries.
Q:
Under the Solid Waste Disposal Act, the federal role in nontoxic waste management is to
A. provide strict guidelines to landfill composition.
B. promote research and provide technical and financial assistance to the states.
C. waive standards regarding other pollution that arises as a result of solid waste management.
D. grant tax breaks for industries using recycled materials.
E. provide for the storage, transfer, and disposal of non-toxic waste material.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the problem of solid wastes?
A. The Clean Air Act is inapplicable in cases where solid wastes have been burned.
B. Solid waste pollution problems have decreased during the last 25 years.
C. Half of all solid waste produced in U.S is agricultural waste.
D. Residential waste is the highest contributor of solid wastes in U.S.
E. Landfills are the least used sites for most household and business solid wastes.
Q:
The primary federal effort in solid waste management is represented by the ______.
A. Waste and Resource Reclamation Act
B. Solid Waste Disposal Act
C. Landfill Management Act
D. National Environmental Policy Act
E. National Solid Waste Management Act
Q:
For the Department of Interior, the Endangered Species Act is administered by the
A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act of 1947.
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
C. Toxic Substances Control Act.
D. Federal Environmental Pesticide Control Act of 1972 (FEPCA).
E. Fish and Wildlife Services and the National Marine Fisheries Services.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Endangered Species Act (ESA)?
A. The act was passed in the year 1952 under the guidelines given by the panel on the Council on Environmental Quality.
B. The act has its scope limited to private businesses.
C. The act permits courts or regulators to take economic factors into consideration in applying its provisions.
D. The act requires recovery plans for the species it protects.
E. The act provides for exemptions that are applicable to private activities for certain important federal projects.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Clean Water Act?
A. It was passed in accordance with the Toxic Substances Control Act in the year 1975.
B. It is beyond the scope of the act to set laws pertaining to the recreational use of waterways.
C. It applies to both navigable interstate and intrastate waterways.
D. The criminal penalties of the act cover any unpermitted point-source pollution of navigable waterways.
E. The penalties under the act are predominantly insubstantial.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Clean Water Act?
A. It sets goals and timetables to eliminate water pollution.
B. It directs the Environmental Protection Agency to set maximum drinking water contaminant levels.
C. It mandates permits to discharge pollutants from non-point source.
D. It mandates permits for industrial, but exempts municipal, dischargers.
E. It regulates non-point source pollution.
Q:
The ______ approach to pollution control refers to a situation where the government issues a limited number of pollution permits, and companies, which can reduce emissions, can sell the unused amount of a permit.
A. marketable rights
B. point source
C. cap and trade
D. emissions reduction banking
E. bubble concept
Q:
Under the ______ issued by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), polluters can engage in a family of alternative operating scenarios without the expensive delay of obtaining new permits per the previous EPA requirements.
A. emissions reduction banking credits
B. marketable rights
C. remediation
D. superfunds
E. smart permits
Q:
The estimated time needed to acquire the necessary permits to build a coal-fired electric generating plant is
A. one to two years.
B. six to nine months.
C. five to ten years.
D. three to four years.
E. two to three years.
Q:
Thermal effluents consist of
A. heated air discharged into the atmosphere.
B. heated water discharged into rivers and lakes.
C. warm water tides that affect the weather.
D. solid waste that produces heat creating landfill-related pollution.
E. heated pollutants released from gas chambers to the atmosphere.
Q:
Under the Clean Water Act, the first step in cleanup of industrial wastes requires polluters to install ______.
A. best practicable technology
B. scrubbers
C. best available technology
D. electromagnetic precipitators
E. wet collectors
Q:
Which of the following acts administered by the Environmental Protection Agency requires a permit system for the discharge or dumping of various materials into the seas?
A. the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972
B. the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974
C. the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
D. the Toxic Substances Control Act
E. the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Q:
Which of the following is a control device that stationary source polluters may utilize to achieve design standards?
A. catalytic converters
B. short stacks
C. water jets
D. steel utilities
E. scrubbers
Q:
Under the 1990 Clean Air Act amendments, Congress specifically allows utility companies to
A. engage in emissions reduction banking and trading.
B. indulge in cap and trade.
C. use marketable rights to pollution control.
D. avoid cost-benefit analysis in its approach to pollution control.
E. focus on secondary air quality standards rather than primary air quality standards.
Q:
The ______ approach refers to pollution control system under which the right to discharge a certain pollutant would be auctioned off to the highest bidder.
A. point-source
B. bubble concept
C. cap and trade
D. novation
E. marketable rights
Q:
Under the ______ approach, businesses can cut pollution beyond what the law requires and keep these reductions for their own future use or to sell to other companies as emission offsets.
A. cap and trade
B. bubble concept
C. emissions reduction banking
D. point-source
E. marketable rights
Q:
Under the Clean Air Act, corporations can be fined up to ______ for knowingly endangering people with emissions.
A. $1 million
B. $25 million
C. $10 million
D. $1 billion
E. $5 million
Q:
For control purposes, the Clean Air Act amendments divide air pollution into the categories of ______ sources.
A. suburban and rural
B. stationary and mobile
C. commercial and residential
D. urban and industrial
E. organic and inorganic
Q:
Traditionally, under the Environmental Protection Agency, the ______ is described as a specific site of pollution, such as a smokestack.
A. emissions reduction bank
B. urban runoff
C. line source
D. point source
E. bubble concept
Q:
Under the ______, the pollution of the plant complex as a whole is the focus of regulation.
A. scoping concept
B. novation concept
C. line source concept
D. point source concept
E. bubble concept
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Clean Air Act?
A. As per the act, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) sets national ambient air quality standards and the states devise implementation plans.
B. Criminal sanctions for violation of the act by individuals result in a fine of up to $1,000,000 or life imprisonment.
C. The principal responsibility for enforcing the act lies with the individuals and nongovernmental organizations.
D. The scope of the act limits it from setting any secondary air quality standards.
E. The state is given complete control over formulation and implementation of plans under the Clean Air Act.
Q:
Environmental impact study scoping refers to
A. designating specific geographic areas that a contemplated action will affect.
B. estimating the specific population that a contemplated action will affect.
C. designating which environmental issues of a contemplated action are most significant.
D. specifying a backup plan should a contemplated action cause unforeseeable damage.
E. preparing informal impact statements that will address environmental issues regarded as most important.
Q:
The director of Homeland Security has exercised authority to create an exception to the National Environmental Policy Act requirements to allow the
A. creation of a single piece of legislation that comprehensively controls radiation pollution.
B. suspension of the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act restrictions in and around domestic military bases.
C. suspension of the Endangered Species Act restrictions when animal and plant life is affected during necessary military training maneuvers.
D. building of a fence between the United States and Mexico.
E. building of nuclear power plants around protected areas of the United States.
Q:
Clean air standards designed to protect against air pollution effects such as injury to property, vegetation, and climate are called
A. primary air quality standards.
B. secondary air quality standards.
C. principal air quality standards.
D. tertiary air quality standards.
E. premium air quality standards.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)?
A. It establishes a single piece of legislation that comprehensively controls radiation pollution.
B. It coordinates public control of private action at the federal level.
C. It is usually beyond its scope to administer federal laws.
D. It administers local laws relating to the sale of medicines and drugs at lower rates.
E. It demands that all state agencies prepare an environmental impact statement prior to taking certain actions.
Q:
Environmental impact statements became a requirement based on the
A. National Environmental Policy Act.
B. Department of the Environment Act.
C. Clean Water Act.
D. Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act.
E. Waste and Resource Reclamation Act.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the National Environmental Policy Act?
A. It establishes a single piece of legislation that comprehensively controls radiation pollution.
B. It imposes specific duties on all state agencies, but not on federal agencies.
C. It ensures that the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act do not contain provisions related to government suits to recover costs for the cleanup of toxic chemicals.
D. It promotes the understanding of the ecological systems important to the United States.
E. It demands that all state agencies prepare an environmental impact statement prior to taking certain actions.
Q:
Environmental laws at the federal level are administered by the
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B. Pollution Control Board.
C. Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA).
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
E. World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED).
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of an environmental impact statement (EIS)?
A. The National Environmental Policy Act requires federal agencies to follow the conclusions of the EIS.
B. An EIS can be in any language as long as it is clear and to the point.
C. An EIS is to be included in every recommendation or report on proposals for legislation and other major federal actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
D. An EIS should include technical jargon to clearly explain all the points mentioned in the statement.
E. The EIS is usually a short list of points that hints at the pros of the economic profits that are outcomes of transactions concerning the human environment.
Q:
An environmental impact statement
A. must include available alternatives to the proposed action.
B. must include economic profits that can be guaranteed from the organizations action.
C. must include a statement of any reversible use of resources.
D. must include technical jargon for better understanding of the statement.
E. must be included in most recommendations or reports on proposals for legislation affecting the environment.
Q:
It is beyond the rights or authority of shareholders to file global warming-related resolutions directing board members or officers to analyze and/or report on environmental issues.
Q:
High-income countries use four to five times as much energy (mostly from polluting fossil fuels like coal and oil) as developing countries.
Q:
The destruction of the worlds rainforests is occurring primarily on privately owned land as it is more difficult to enforce the laws in private property ownership cases.
Q:
The emissions trading approach to pollution management is a property approach.
Q:
Airborne particles that fall on a plaintiffs property can constitute a trespass.
Q:
Ozone depleting chlorofluorocarbons and halons are no longer in production.
Q:
The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) demands that the Environmental Protection Agency be given advance notice before the manufacture of new chemical substances or the processing of any substance for a significant new use.
Q:
The Toxic Substances Control Act is like the Clean Air Act, which requires that certain pollution standards be met without regard for economic factors.
Q:
The National Academy of Sciences notes that global carbon dioxide levels have decreased rapidly since 1960.
Q:
Under the Kyoto Protocol, industrialized nations are supposed to lower greenhouse gas emission below 1990 levels.
Q:
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act accomplishes proper hazardous waste disposal through the manifest system.
Q:
Banks that hold a mortgage on land that turns out to have a toxic waste site subject to the Superfund rules are liable for the cleanup.
Q:
In cases of strict liability tort, finding of fault or failure of reasonable care on the defendants part is necessary.
Q:
Machinery used in solid waste disposal is exempt from the regulation of the Noise Control Act.
Q:
The Endangered Species Act extends its protection to threatened species too.
Q:
The Endangered Species Act requires courts and regulators to take economic factors into consideration in applying the Acts provisions.
Q:
Congress has established a review board that grants exemptions to the Endangered Species Act (ESA) for private activities.
Q:
U.S. pesticide companies can sell internationally what they cannot sell in the United States.
Q:
Under the Solid Waste Disposal Act, the main responsibility for nontoxic waste management rests with federal management.
Q:
Landfills are not preferred as disposal sites for business solid waste due to the excessive amount of waste.
Q:
Unlike the Clean Air Act, the Clean Water Act is administered primarily by the federal government.
Q:
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates indoor air pollution under the Clean Air Act.
Q:
The prevention of significant deterioration policy is criticized on the grounds that it prevents industry from moving into southern and western states where air quality is cleaner than standards require.
Q:
Enforcement of the Clean Water Act revolves around its permit discharge system.
Q:
To be considered a point source under the Clean Water Act, the source must itself create pollution.
Q:
States bear principal responsibility for devising implementation plans regarding the Clean Air Act.
Q:
The Clean Air Act unambiguously bars cost considerations from the air quality standards-setting process.
Q:
All new pollution-control rules are now subject to a cost-benefit analysis.
Q:
The bubble concept reduces the flexibility in curtailing pollution and restricts businesses to discover new methods of controls.
Q:
Primary air quality standards are standards that are necessary to protect public health.
Q:
Which of the following acts requires the government to issue model disclosure forms?
A. Equal Credit Opportunity Act
B. Stored Communications Act
C. Electronic Communications Privacy Act
D. Federal Trade Commission Act
E. Truth-in-Lending Simplification Act
Q:
The U.S. federal government is the largest landholder in the country, controlling one-third of the nations land.
Q:
Scoping encourages impact statements to focus on more substantial environmental concerns and reduce the attention devoted to trivial issues.
Q:
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) has made it mandatory for federal agencies to follow the conclusions of an environmental impact statement (EIS).
Q:
State environmental impact statements have been more successful than their federal counterparts in evaluating complex environmental factors.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Childrens Online Privacy Protection Act?
A. It prohibits the creation of websites intended to target children.
B. It permits companies to collect information on children over the age of 10 without the need for consent of the parents.
C. It prohibits market research agencies from soliciting children under the age of 13 without the consent of the federal government.
D. It prohibits online advertisers from creating advertisements targeting children under the age of 10.
E. It prohibits the online collection of information on children under the age of 13 without a parents consent.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Truth-in-Lending Simplification Act?
A. It restricts statutory penalties to failures to disclose credit terms that are of material importance in credit comparisons.
B. It requires statutory penalties to be based purely on technical violations of the act.
C. It eliminates the need for model disclosure forms issued by the government.
D. It restricts state laws from allowing private lawsuits against deceptive advertisements.
E. It prohibits companies from the practice of redlining.
Q:
The Video Privacy Protection Act prevents the disclosure of personally identifiable information concerning video rentals and includes a right of civil action with a minimum liquidated damages provision of ______.
A. $2,500
B. $5,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $20,000
Q:
The ______, passed by the European Parliament in 1995, mandates that companies may collect personal information only with consent, keep it only as long as necessary, and transfer to third parties only with permission.
A. Safe Harbor Directive
B. Encryption Networks Directive
C. Data Protection Directive
D. Information Transfer Safety Directive
E. Information Network Directive
Q:
The ______ of 1974 places constraints on how certain kinds of information collected by the federal government can be used and limits those to whom the information may be released.
A. Fair Credit Reporting Act
B. Clayton Act
C. Sherman Act
D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
E. Privacy Act
Q:
ECNAL Corp. manufactures bicycle parts. One of its new products, the Slipstream tire, is advertised to be 20 percent stronger than that of its competitors due to a new rubber compound used that makes the tires skid resistant. After receiving complaints of fraud, the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) determines that the tire is made from rubber similar to that found in most bicycle tires and is not skid resistant. The FTC orders ECNAL to run an ad admitting that its advertisements were misleading and remove the untrue information from its advertisements. In this scenario, which of the following remedies is used by the FTC?
A. corrective advertising
B. cease and desist advertising
C. comparative advertising
D. parody advertising
E. social advertising
Q:
Which of the following statements is most likely to be true when the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is very laissez-faire?
A. The FTC does not regulate most advertising.
B. The FTC tends not to regulate traditional frauds.
C. The FTC commissioners tend to be more consumer-oriented.
D. The FTC will increase the number of deceptive cases filed.
E. The FTC limits the role of markets in regulating advertising.
Q:
To determine deception in advertising, the Federal Trade Commission
A. looks at an ad from the point of view of a reasonable seller.
B. looks at both implied and express claims.
C. ignores what an ad does not say.
D. looks at an ad from the point of view of a reasonable advertiser.
E. ignores the pictures but focuses on certain words and phrases.
Q:
In the context of false advertising laws, state law
A. may allow for private lawsuits in addition to government enforcement, which is an option not available under the Federal Trade Commission Act.
B. ignores material claims in deceptive advertising unlike the Federal Trade Commission Act.
C. ignores express claims made in deceptive advertising unlike the Federal Trade Commission Act.
D. only prosecutes violators who make implied claims in their advertising unlike the Federal Trade Commission Act.
E. uses remedies such as corrective advertising to accompany some of its orders, which is an option not available under the Federal Trade Commission Act.
Q:
Which of the following is the limitation of the Electronic Communications Privacy Act?
A. It permits the interception of broadcast radio communications.
B. It allows the interception of emails by another without authorization.
C. It severely limits all business communications.
D. It protects all personally identifiable information, which limits business activities.
E. It does not apply to the privacy of communications stored on a server.