Q&A Hero

Q: The balance sheet approach to compensation refers to designing pay systems that equalize the purchasing power of employees at comparable positions living overseas and in the home country. a. True b. False

Q: The demand for expatriate employees is growing rapidly. a. True b. False

Q: Employee benefits in the United States are among the highest in the world. a. True b. False

Q: Foreign workers with H2B visas can come to the United States for a maximum of sixmonths to perform temporary, agricultural seasonal work that is onetime only. a. True b. False

Q: Pay plans in Japan tend to focus on individual performance and achievement. a. True b. False

Q: The financial crisis beginning in 2008 only made international business matters worse, as companies were even less likely to offer jobs to foreigners who might be seen as taking jobs from national citizens. a. True b. False

Q: Nearly all companies have career development programs designed for repatriating employees. a. True b. False

Q: Repatriation refers to the training a manager receives before taking an international assignment. a. True b. False

Q: Culture shock refers to the disorientation people experience while adjusting to a new culture or readjusting to their native culture. a. True b. False

Q: Despite improved telecommunications and travel, it is more difficult than ever to match up employers and employees worldwide. a. True b. False

Q: Personal relationships are everything in Asia, and business there can only be conducted after relationships have been established. a. True b. False

Q: Managers in Latin American countries can encourage performance by using personal influence and working through individual members of a group. a. True b. False

Q: In recent years, there has also been a trend to send expatriates on longer, less project-basedassignments. a. True b. False

Q: Tax incentives, tariffs, and quotas are frequently implemented by the host country to encourage local hiring. a. True b. False

Q: English is almost universally accepted as the language for international business. a. True b. False

Q: Recently, transnational companies from Japan and China have proven to be some of the most powerful companies in the world. a. True b. False

Q: The failure of expatriate assignments is most often due to lack of technical and managerial ability. a. True b. False

Q: The first step in selecting expatriates should be self-selection, where employees who volunteer to go abroad are given the chance to do so. a. True b. False

Q: Women expatriates are thought to succeed in part because they are visible and distinctive. a. True b. False

Q: For most companies, the transnational form represents an ideal, rather than a reality. a. True b. False

Q: Transnational team consists of people from the same country working on different international projects. a. True b. False

Q: Apprenticeship training in the United States is far superior to that in Europe. a. True b. False

Q: Foreign workers invited to come to perform needed labor are usually referred to as guest workers. a. True b. False

Q: A work permit, or visa issued by a government, is a document issued to students abroad that permits them to work up to 20 hours per week for an organization that is headquartered in their home country. a. True b. False

Q: A work permit or visa issued by a government allows a foreign individual to seek employment in that government's country. a. True b. False

Q: Essentially, the United States has a monopoly on international business. a. True b. False

Q: One reason to employ host-country nationals is that local governments want good jobs for their citizens. a. True b. False

Q: Hiring local citizens is generally less costly than relocating expatriates. a. True b. False

Q: At early stages of international expansion, many organizations prefer to use host-country nationals. a. True b. False

Q: Third-country nationals are individuals workingaway from a company's home country. a. True b. False

Q: Because of low labor costs and language similarities, many Indian companies are finding the United States an attractive place to locate their facilities, particularly call centers. a. True b. False

Q: A global HR information system facilitates coordination between world units but is difficult to put in place. a. True b. False

Q: Different cultural environments require different organizational behaviors. a. True b. False

Q: The host country is the country in which an international business operates. a. True b. False

Q: The European Union (EU) was established to facilitate free trade with the United States. a. True b. False

Q: U.S. companies have been conducting business on an international basis longer than anyone else. a. True b. False

Q: A global corporation has fully autonomous units operating in multiple countries. a. True b. False

Q: Subsidiaries of multidomesticcorporations are run as independent companies. a. True b. False

Q: In some countries, night shifts are taboo. a. True b. False

Q: A multidomestic corporation is essentially a domestic firm that builds on its existing capabilities to penetrate overseas markets. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the various contemporary challenges faced by labor organizations labor. How are unions attempting to meet these challenges?

Q: List some typical and some progressiveclauses found in a labor agreement.

Q: Explain some of the issues that should be addressed by the employer's bargaining strategy.

Q: Briefly discuss some of the aggressive organizing tactics that unions sometimes employ.

Q: Briefly discuss the Landrum-Griffin Act, including the rights and obligations that the legislation provides.

Q: Neutrality agreements secure a binding commitment from the _____ to remain neutral during the organization drive. a. employees b. local government c. employer d. national or international union

Q: Which act placed the protective power of the federal government firmly behind employee efforts to organize and bargain collectively through representatives of their choice? a. Norris-LaGuardia b. Railway Labor c. Taft-Hartley d. Wagner

Q: Statistics show that approximately _____ jobs in the United States can be offshored. a. 14 million b. 26 million c. 38 million d. 50 million

Q: In 2012, union membership was approximately _____ of employed wage and salary workers. a. 6.9 percent b. 11.3 percent c. 15.4 percent d. 17.2 percent

Q: Recently, the Union of Needletraders, Industrial, and Textile Employees (UNITE) merged with _____. a. the United Auto Workers b. the Teamsters c. Hotel Employees and Restaurant Employees d. the Service Employees International Union

Q: "Energized organizing" to stem the overall decline in union membership involves: a. capitalizing on technological advances. b. targeting ignored worker groups, such as low-wage tier service workers and immigrants. c. participative management and empowerment. d. consolidation of national unions under the AFL-CIO.

Q: In 1990, union membership has _____ as a percentage of the civilian labor force and has _____ in terms of total union members. a. increased; increased b. increased; decreased c. decreased; increased d. decreased; decreased

Q: Which of the following is NOT a contemporary challenge to labor organizations? a. The increased threat of foreign competition b. The presence of an increase in employee diversity c. Technological advantages d. A decrease in union membership

Q: The factors that arbitrators use when deciding cases are the wording of the labor agreement, the submission agreement, the testimony and evidence offered, and: a. arbitrationof witnesses. b. the concept of reasonable doubt. c. arbitration criteria or standards. d. the ability to set precedent.

Q: In a dispute, it is the arbitrator's responsibility is to: a. ensure each side receives a fair hearing. b. decide the case without passing judgment. c. interpret the intent of the labor agreement. d. get the parties to work together to solve their differences.

Q: Unions have a legal obligation to provide assistance to members who are pursuing grievances under: a. the Wagner Act. b. the Taft-Hartley Act. c. the fair representation doctrine. d. the right-to-work statute.

Q: In order for an employee's grievance to be considered formally, it must: a. be in direct violation of the labor agreement. b. have resulted in loss of pay or economic benefit to the employee. c. be filed with the National Labor Relations Board. d. be expressed orally or in writing.

Q: ____ states have passed right-to-work laws. a. 10 b. 13 c. 24 d. 41

Q: States are permitted to enact legislation prohibiting compulsory union membership as a condition of employment under the: a. Wagner Act. b. Railway Labor Act. c. Taft-Hartley Act. d. Landrum-Griffin Act.

Q: Which of the following is the largest public sector labor organization? a. National Education Association b. American Federation of Teachers c. State, County and Municipal Employees d. The American Firefighters Association

Q: Management rights within a labor agreement include: a. the legal injunction. b. the authority to set pay rates and hours of work. c. the authority to discharge union employees under "employment-at-will." d. the conditions of employment over which management is able to exercise exclusive control.

Q: A third-party neutral who resolves labor disputes by issuing a final decision that the parties must accept is: a. a mediator. b. an arbitrator. c. a union steward. d. a conciliator.

Q: The right that employers possess that serves as a bargaining weapon to equalize the force of the union's right to strike is: a. the legal right to hire replacement workers. b. the legal injunction. c. the lockout. d. a work slowdown.

Q: When a union uses radio and newspaper ads to discourage the purchase of an employer's products, it is called: a. an unfair labor practice. b. a bargaining zone. c. a boycott. d. picketing.

Q: Pickets may prevent trucks and railcars from entering a struck business because: a. the union has a legal right to obstruct the business of the employer they are striking against. b. picketing during a strike carries a legal obligation on the part of the employer to cease operations, including delivery of goods and materials. c. operators of trucks and railcars must get permission from the picketing union to enter the premises. d. unions often refuse to cross another union's picket line.

Q: The bargaining power of a union may be exercised by: a. legal injunction. b. lockout or relocation. c. striking, picketing, or boycotting. d. union merger.

Q: The creation of a relationship for the future based on trust, understanding, and mutual respect is the basis of: a. the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. b. traditional bargaining. c. interest-based bargaining. d. good faith bargaining.

Q: Interest-based bargaining is based upon: a. the area within which union and management are willing to concede. b. the identification and resolution of mutual interests. c. a give-and-take philosophy. d. suspicion and compromise.

Q: Good faith bargaining requires that: a. each side's negotiators meet at any time and place to discuss issues. b. each side's negotiators meet at any time and a reasonable place to discuss issues. c. each side's negotiators meet at a reasonable time and reasonable place to discuss issues. d. an agreement be reached within a reasonable amount of time.

Q: Bargaining on all matters concerning rates of pay, wages, hours of employment, and other conditions of employment falls under: a. permissive issues. b. adversarial bargaining. c. the bargaining zone. d. mandatory subjects.

Q: Which act requires an employer to negotiate in good faith with the union's representatives over conditions of employment? a. Wagner Act b. Railway Labor Act c. Taft-Hartley Act d. Landrum-Griffin Act

Q: Developing likely union proposals, lists of demands, and a contingency plan for operating in the event of a strike are part of: a. a union's bargaining strategy. b. an employer's bargaining strategy. c. compulsory binding arbitration. d. good faith bargaining.

Q: Strikes, boycotts, lockouts, and plant closures may be used as economic pressure in: a. the collective bargaining process. b. compulsory binding arbitration. c. negotiation preparation. d. public sector bargaining.

Q: The Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 defines the labor relations duties and regulations for which employee group? a. U.S. employees b. private-sector employees c. public-sector employees d. federal government employees

Q: Which of the following states has no collective bargaining law? a. Arizona b. Florida c. New York d. Hawaii

Q: _____ represent the interests of union members in their relations with their immediate supervisor and other members of management. a. Union leaders b. Business representatives c. Union stewards d. Mediators

Q: A term applied to the goals of U.S. labor organizations, which collectively bargain for improvements in wages, hours, job security, and working conditions is known as: a. political goal-setting. b. business unionism. c. tactical unionism. d. collective entrepreneurship.

Q: According to Moser, the first step in the union organizing process is: a. the initial organizational meeting. b. the formation of an in-house organizing committee. c. employee/union contact. d. the election petition and voting preparation.

Q: _____ are labor organizations that represent various groups of professional and white-collaremployees in labor management relations. a. Craft unions b. Industrial unions c. Employee associations d. Management clubs

Q: In 2012, the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) held 1,468 conclusive representation elections, of which _____ resulted in union wins. a. 63.8% b. 59% c. 74.2% d. 85%