Q&A Hero

Q: Historically, ________ errors meant that costs of selection would be increased because more candidates would have to be screened. A) halo effect B) reject C) selection D) cost E) accept

Q: The popular practice of relying on current employee referrals as a source of new job applicants tends to result in candidates who ________. A) have similar characteristics to current employees B) are younger than current employees C) are better skilled than current employees D) add diversity to the current workforce E) have more training than the current workforce

Q: A set of attitudes, perceptions and behaviors of employees who survive involuntary staff reductions is called ________. A) retention robustness B) retention sickness C) survivor illness D) layoff-survivor sickness E) layoff sickness

Q: Explain why Internet recruiting benefits organizations.

Q: Accept errors have obvious costs to supervisors and their organizations, including which of the following? A) cost of goods sold B) cost of training C) cost of retraining D) vacation time E) team respect

Q: When there is a proven relationship between a selection device and some relevant criterion, that device is said to be ________. A) valid B) fair C) reliable D) equal E) just

Q: Selection devices based on actual job behaviors, work sampling, and assessment centers are known as ________ tests. A) work sample B) performance-simulation C) behavioral D) assessment E) validity

Q: When interviews are ________ and when interviewers are held to common questioning, interviews can be reliable and valid selection tools. A) casual and not time restricted B) impromptu and unstructured C) structured and well organized D) conducted over the phone E) conducted by middle managers

Q: Interviews can be reliable and valid selection tools as long as they are ________. A) lengthy B) brief C) relaxed D) unstructured E) unbiased

Q: A job interview that provides both positive and negative information about the job and the company is called a(n) ________. A) stress interview B) legal interview C) realistic job preview D) affirmative job preview E) preliminary preview

Q: Which types of questions should a supervisor feel comfortable asking in a job interview? A) what is your age B) what is your marital status C) what are the ages of your children D) do you have an arrest record E) what experience do you have for the position

Q: The majority of studies find that employee referrals produce the best candidates.

Q: The law prohibits supervisors from using any selection device that cannot be shown to be directly related to successful job performance.

Q: The majority of studies have found that advertisements produce the best candidates.

Q: The source used to recruit potential employees should reflect the local labor market, the type and level of position, and the size of the organization.

Q: The interview, along with the application form, is an almost universal selection device.

Q: Identify the best known devices a supervisor can use to reduce, accept and reject errors in the selection process.

Q: The expansion of information a new employee obtains during the recruitment and selection stages; and an attempt to familiarize new employees with the job, the work unit, and the organization as a whole is called employee ________. A) development B) work group C) training D) orientation E) progress

Q: All of the following are typical methods used for training EXCEPT ________. A) classroom lecture B) observation C) simulation exercises D) vestibule training E) apprenticeship

Q: Employee training involves improving all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) attitudes B) knowledge C) behavior D) hours E) skills

Q: What are the major objectives of orientation to a new job?

Q: Describe job instruction training.

Q: The goals of ________ are to design a cost-effective pay structure that will attract and retain competent employees and to provide an incentive for these individuals to exert high energy levels at work. A) performance reviews B) employee feedback methods C) middle management D) compensation administration E) entitlement incentives

Q: The primary determination of pay is the different kinds and levels of ________, knowledge, and abilities required for a job. A) tenure B) experience C) skill D) familiarity E) aptitude

Q: Some organizations are committed to paying their employees at or above area wage levels to emphasize that they want to ________. A) prevent unionization B) promote from within C) reduce tax obligation D) attract and keep the best employees E) defeat their competitors

Q: Nonfinancial rewards designed to enrich employees' lives are referred to as ________. A) employee benefits B) indirect compensation C) direction compensation D) out-of-pocket benefits E) entitlement incentives

Q: The four-step process of delegation includes all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) allocation of duties B) delegation of authority C) assignment of responsibility D) creation of accountability E) transfer of blame

Q: Before a supervisor can delegate authority, allocation of the ________ over which the authority extends must be made to an employee. A) job description B) duties C) duration D) expectations E) principles

Q: There is no question supervisors need to ________. A) multitask B) be authoritarian C) be able to delegate D) assume responsibility for all tasks E) specialize

Q: When supervisors increase employee involvement in their work through greater participation in decisions that control their work and expand responsibility for work outcomes it is called ________. A) empowerment B) unity of command C) unanimity D) chain of command E) scalar chain

Q: Once the departmental structure is in place, how does a supervisor organize an employee's job?

Q: A job description is a written statement of what a jobholder does, how the job is done, and why it is done.

Q: A written statement of what a jobholder does, how the job is done, and why it is done is called a ________. A) job specification B) work standard C) job classification D) chain of command E) job description

Q: Once the organization structure is in place, a supervisor must identify the tasks to be done, combine them into jobs, and then formalize the process through a ________. A) matrix organization B) bureaucratic organization C) scalar chain D) series of job descriptions E) chain of command

Q: With ________ employees and teams, there is little need for supervisors to direct and control. Instead, supervisors serve as facilitators, supporters, and advocates for employee teams. A) multiple B) vertical C) diverse D) empowered E) virtual

Q: In a ________ organization employees practice knowledge management by continually acquiring and sharing new knowledge and are willing to apply that knowledge in making decisions or performing their work. A) network B) virtual C) vertical D) learning E) formal

Q: An organization that has developed a capacity to continuously adapt and change because all its members take an active role in identifying and resolving work-related issues is referred to as a(n) ________ organization. A) diverse B) boundaryless C) learning D) changing E) modern

Q: Identify and explain the difference between the traditional departmentalization of an organization and the simplified grouping of work for today's organizations.

Q: Employees in a matrix structure have two managers: their functional departmental supervisor, and their product or project supervisor.

Q: Many of today's most successful organizations are finding that they can operate most effectively by remaining ________. A) bounded and structured B) flexible and unstructured C) virtual D) defined by categories E) diverse

Q: As many organizations have cut costs and streamlined their organizational design to respond better to customer needs, decision-making authority has been pushed down to the lowest levels in the organization.

Q: When supervisors empower employees and delegate to them the authority to make decisions on those things that affect their work and change the way that they think about work, that's ________. A) authority B) responsibility C) centralization D) departmentalization E) decentralization

Q: Today supervisors and operatives are being actively included in ________. In this way those most familiar with a problem are able to quickly analyze and solve it. A) top management decisions B) restructuring C) the decision-making process D) reorganization E) chain of command

Q: Decision-making responsibility in the hands of top management is called ________. A) empowerment B) functionalization C) centralization D) de-functionalization E) decentralization

Q: Identify and explain the difference between responsibility and authority for a supervisor.

Q: Identify and explain the different types of authority a supervisor may possess.

Q: Authority without responsibility creates opportunities for abuse.

Q: There are three different types of authority: functional, line, and unity of command.

Q: When top management creates organizational units like divisions, regions, territories, and departments and allocates supervisory personnel to each with specific goals and responsibilities, it must also give these supervisors enough ________. A) span of management to exercise the chain of command B) authority to successfully carry out those responsibilities C) restructuring of work to implement job specialization D) decentralization to maintain authority within the management hierarchy E) work simplification to implement management objectives

Q: Responsibility without authority creates ________. A) frustration and the feeling of powerlessness B) excessive demands and coerciveness C) a feeling of control and ability to exploit D) dominance and decisiveness E) confidence and satisfaction

Q: Supervisory obligations such as achieving unit goals, keeping costs within budget, following organizational policies, and motivating employees fall under the heading of ________. A) accountability B) responsibility C) functional authority D) line authority E) unity of command

Q: Supervisors who have authority rights over individuals outside their own direct areas of responsibility have ________. A) staff authority B) line authority C) functional authority D) unity of command E) chain of command

Q: The types of authority include which of the following? A) assigned B) assumed C) staff D) servicing E) assisting

Q: Staff authority supports line authority by advising, servicing, and assisting, but it is typically ________. A) unlimited B) rare C) common D) limited E) misused

Q: ________ gives the supervisor the right to direct the work of reporting employees and make certain decisions without consulting others. A) Staff authority B) Line authority C) Functional authority D) Chain of command E) Work simplification

Q: The rights inherent in a supervisory position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed is ________. A) responsibility B) work simplification C) authority D) coordination E) accountability

Q: According to the unity of command principle when allocating tasks to individuals in a department each employee should report directly to one manager.

Q: An important trend currently taking place in organizations is that spans of control are almost universally being expanded.

Q: The optimal span of control for a supervisor is ________ employees. A) 15-50 B) 1-5 C) 3-7 D) 5-30 E) 25-75

Q: The number of employees a supervisor can efficiently and effectively direct is called span of control. Contemporary organizations find that ________ create flat organizations with fewer vertical levels. A) wide spans B) narrow spans C) specialized work teams D) assembly lines E) demanding tasks

Q: Today supervisors understand that work specialization provides economic efficiencies and is an unending source of increased productivity.

Q: Assembly-line production, in which each worker does the same standardized task over and over again, is an example of ________ in which individuals focus on doing part of an activity rather than the entire activity. A) inefficiency B) extra expense C) specialization D) effortless work E) unskilled work

Q: One problem that may result from work specialization is ________. A) economic inefficiencies B) more demanding tasks C) less demanding tasks D) low productivity E) highly skilled workers do easy tasks

Q: When an entire job is broken down into a number of steps, rather than being done by one individual, and each step is completed by a separate individual, it is called ________. A) work coordination B) work specialization C) job rotation D) contingency planning E) management by objectives

Q: Define and discuss the different types of departmentalization within an organization.

Q: Individuals and groups will develop formal alliances that are informally structured and organizationally determined.

Q: In the 1920s and 1930s, as organizations got bigger and more formal, supervisors felt a need to provide more coordination of activities and tighter control over operations.

Q: The supervisor in the matrix structure with authority over the functional members of the team is called a ________ supervisor. A) functional B) virtual C) project D) presiding E) dual

Q: The organizational configuration that breaks the rules and creates a dual chain of command is called the ________ structure. A) simple B) matrix C) divisional D) functional E) complex

Q: The configuration of an organization made up of self-contained units that focus on results is referred to as a(n) ________ structure. A) formal B) simple C) informal D) functional E) divisional

Q: In the ________ structure, putting like specialties together results in economies of scale, minimizes duplication of personnel and equipment, and makes employees comfortable and satisfied with peers. A) mechanistic B) virtual C) functional D) network E) bureaucratic

Q: The configuration most widely used in smaller businesses in which the supervisor and the owner are often the same person is called a ________ structure. A) simple B) line C) process D) network E) functional

Q: A non-elaborate configuration, low in complexity, with little formalization, and with authority centralized in a single person; a "flat" organization with only two or three levels is referred to as a ________ structure. A) chain of command B) simple C) scalar chain D) bureaucratic E) informal

Q: A system that groups activities on the basis of work or customer flow is known as ________. A) unity of command B) scalar chain C) process departmentalization D) control departmentalization E) individualized departmentalization

Q: Organizations are departmentalized based on the following EXCEPT ________. A) functional B) product C) customer D) specialization E) geographic

Q: The process of arranging and grouping jobs, allocating resources, and assigning work in a department so that activities can be accomplished as planned is ________. A) commanding B) planning C) controlling D) organizing E) leading

Q: A written document that identifies the entrepreneur's vision and describes the strategy and operations of a new venture by laying out the proposed goals and activities is a(n) ________. A) decision tree B) business plan C) strategic plan D) operating plan E) pro forma plan

Q: The evidence on entrepreneurial personalities leads to all of the following conclusions EXCEPT ________. A) the cultural context in which individuals were raised will have an effect B) people with this personality thrive under the rules, regulations and controls imposed by bureaucracies C) people with this personality are not likely to be contented, productive employees in the typical large corporation D) the challenges and conditions inherent in starting one's own business mesh well with this personality E) prefer to be personally responsible for solving problems

Q: It is important not to confuse supervising in a small business with entrepreneurship because not all small-business supervisors are entrepreneurs. Many do not ________. A) plan B) organize C) motivate D) innovate E) delegate

Q: The process of initiating a business venture, organizing the necessary resources, and assuming the risks and rewards is referred to as ________. A) leadership B) entrepreneurship C) business planning D) strategic planning E) organizing