Q&A Hero

Q: Allowing employees to participate in decisions that affect them will increase their level of ________. A) self-awareness B) comprehension C) motivation D) collusion E) cooperation

Q: A supervisor concerned with motivating employees would ________. A) recognize that all employees are the same B) set easily achieved goals C) compel employees to participate in decision making D) match people to jobs E) overlook money as a motivator

Q: In the expectancy theory, motivation is maximized when supervisors make rewards contingent upon ________. A) manipulation of standards B) group achievement C) individual performance D) authority relationships E) cooperation within team

Q: According to expectancy theory, employees will be motivated to exert a high level of effort when they believe that rewards received will ________. A) be extra vacation days B) be a higher salary C) satisfy their personal goals D) lead to promotion E) foster respect of co-workers

Q: According to expectancy theory, employees will be motivated to exert a high level of effort when they believe that effort will lead to ________. A) new job opportunities B) less responsibility C) a good performance appraisal D) the recognition of co-workers E) respect from the supervisor

Q: The ________ theory argues that individuals analyze three relationships: effort-performance, performance-rewards, and rewards-personal goals. A) hygiene B) expectancy C) hierarchy of needs D) reinforcement E) equity

Q: When a job situation is predominant with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk, high achievers will be strongly motivated.

Q: In developed countries approximately 50 percent of the work force is made up of high achievers.

Q: According to the ________ individuals are concerned not only with the absolute amount of reward they receive for their efforts but also with the relationship of this amount to what others receive. A) equity theory of motivation B) hierarchy of needs theory C) hygiene theory D) expectancy theory of motivation E) reinforcement theory of motivation

Q: Equity theory states that employees perceive what they can get from a job situation in relation to what they put into it and then compare their ________. A) input-outcome ratio to a standard ratio B) lower-order needs to higher-order needs C) input-outcome ratio to the input-outcome ratio of others D) self-monitoring relationship with others E) contributions in order to experience self-actualization

Q: Employees can be trained to stimulate their achievement need by having them ________. A) work in problem solving groups B) mentoring other employees C) working alone in challenging situations D) engaging in group therapy E) write stories emphasizing achievement

Q: In developed countries ________ percent of the workforce is made up of high achievers. A) 50 to 60 B) 30 to 40 C) More than 80 D) 10 to 20 E) 5

Q: High achievers have all of the following personality traits EXCEPT ________. A) desire for personal responsibility B) desire to succeed by chance C) desire for rapid and unambiguous feedback D) desire to avoid very easy or very difficult tasks E) desire to do things better

Q: High achievers prefer job situations with ________. A) no authority or delegation B) personal responsibility and feedback C) teaching and thinking opportunities D) lots of communication E) no responsibility or feedback

Q: People with a need for achievement exhibit the tendency to ________. A) take unnecessary risks B) support the efforts of team members C) share responsibility for problem solving D) set moderately challenging goals E) look for very easy tasks

Q: Intrinsically motivated people have a compelling drive to succeed, but they are striving for ________ rather than the rewards of success. A) recognition B) acknowledgment C) respect D) appreciation E) personal achievement

Q: Define and explain Theory X-Theory Y view of human nature and motivation developed by Douglas McGregor.

Q: Identify and explain the hierarchy of needs theory developed by Abraham Maslow.

Q: Frederick Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory states that the opposite of satisfaction is dissatisfaction.

Q: Frederick Herzberg stated that when characteristics such as salary and working conditions are adequate, people will ________. A) experience self-actualization B) be highly motivated C) be neither dissatisfied nor satisfied D) experience positive reinforcement E) experience a high degree of achievement

Q: The motivation-hygiene theory is concerned with ________. A) self-esteem needs B) job satisfaction C) positive reinforcement D) affiliation needs E) self-actualization

Q: In the ________ view of human nature and motivation, Douglas McGregor proposed that managers assume employees view work as being as natural as rest or play. A) expectancy theory of motivation B) Theory Y C) Theory Z D) equity theory of motivation E) Theory X

Q: Under Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, self-respect, autonomy and achievement would be included in which level of needs? A) self-actualization B) esteem C) physiological D) social E) safety

Q: Which of the following is the lowest need in A. H. Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory? A) self-actualization B) esteem C) physiological D) safety E) psychological

Q: Identify and explain the five types of personality characteristics that have been singled out as having relevance to understanding the behavior and motivation of employees at work.

Q: Individuals high in self-monitoring show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors.

Q: Studies show employees who rate high in externality are more satisfied with their jobs, less alienated from the work setting, and more involved in their jobs than internals.

Q: Emotional intelligence consists of ________ that may help a supervisor cope with the daily demands and pressures of the workplace. A) ability to understand B) ability to empathize C) ability to be decisive D) five dimensions E) four dimensions

Q: People differ in their willingness to take chances. Individuals who make more rapid decisions and use less information in making choices exhibit high ________. A) tolerance levels B) people skills C) self-esteem D) risk propensity E) leadership aspirations

Q: Which personality trait shows considerable adaptability in adjusting behavior to external situational factors? A) locus of control B) self-monitoring C) risk propensity D) Machiavellianism E) willingness to take chances

Q: People differ in the degree to which they like or dislike themselves. This trait is called ________. A) locus of control B) egotism C) self-esteem D) self-actualization E) narcissism

Q: A manipulative person who believes in the philosophy "the end justifies the means" and is viewed by some as being ruthless, exhibits tendencies of ________. A) egotism B) narcissism C) selfishness D) Machiavellianism E) conceit

Q: Supervisors are likely to have higher-performing and more satisfied employees if they match ________ with compatible jobs. A) work skills B) aptitudes C) perseverance D) personality types E) work schedules

Q: When we see employees working hard at some activity, we can conclude they are driven by a desire to satisfy one or more needs that they value.

Q: A physiological or psychological deficiency that makes certain outcomes seem attractive is a ________. A) motive B) reward C) want D) need E) desire

Q: Motivation is defined as the willingness to do something conditioned upon the action's ability to satisfy ________. A) an individual motive B) an individual need C) an individual plan D) an individual hierarchical need E) an individual intention

Q: Identify and explain the different views on ethics.

Q: New trends toward individual rights and social justice mean that supervisors need ethical standards based on non-utilitarian criteria.

Q: The utilitarian view of ethics makes decisions solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences.

Q: The ethical position that requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs is the ________ view. A) justice B) intuitive C) utilitarian D) rights E) management

Q: Someone holding the ethical position in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences has a(n) ________ viewpoint. A) justice B) utilitarian C) rights D) management E) intuitive

Q: A simple technique for overcoming pressures for conformity that retard the development of creative alternatives is ________. A) group problem solving B) brainstorming C) the Delphi technique D) groupthink E) nominal group technique

Q: List and explain some advantages and disadvantages of group decision-making over individual decision-making.

Q: Individuals, rather than groups, increasingly tend to be making decisions in organizations today.

Q: When members of a group meet face-to-face and interact with one another, they create potential for ________. A) a decision better than one made by the best individual B) total quality management C) self-managed teams D) groupthink E) disloyalty

Q: Disadvantages of group decision making would include which of the following? A) quick arrival at decision B) generates few alternatives C) lack of acceptance of a solution D) decreased legitimacy E) pressure to conform

Q: Advantages of group decision-making would include which of the following? A) groupthink B) time consuming C) increased legitimacy D) minority domination E) pressure to conform

Q: There are several advantages to group decision-making. One advantage is the desire to develop more and better alternatives. Another advantage is ________. A) pressure to conform B) ambiguous responsibility C) cultural input D) faster decision-making process E) increases acceptance of a solution

Q: Explain the difference between a programmed and non-programmed decision?

Q: When a supervisor confronts an ill-structured problem, there is no cut-and-dry solution. A custom-made, ________ response is required. A) immediate B) programmed C) group generated D) nonprogrammed E) deliberate

Q: When a supervisor encounters a(n) ________ problem, the goal is clear, the problem familiar, and information about the problem easily defined and complete. A) periodic B) well-structured C) consistent D) ill-structured E) catastrophic

Q: Heuristics are commonly found in two forms - knowledge and representative.

Q: The blackjack strategy illustrates a phenomenon called ________. A) representative heuristic B) availability heuristic C) escalation of commitment D) unexpected events E) expected events

Q: ________ causes individuals to match the likelihood of an occurrence with something that has familiarity. A) Escalation of commitment B) Bias C) Premature judgment D) Availability heuristic E) Representative heuristic

Q: For supervisors ________ can help to explain why, when conducting performance appraisals, they tend to give more weight to more recent behaviors of an employee than behaviors of six or nine months ago. A) premature judgment B) bias C) availability heuristic D) representative heuristic E) escalation of commitment

Q: ________ is the tendency for supervisors to base judgments on readily obtainable information. A) Escalation of commitment B) Prejudgment C) Premature decision making D) Availability heuristic E) Representative heuristic

Q: What must you guard against when making a decision? A) non-programmed decisions B) marginal analysis C) utilitarian view of ethics D) ringisei E) biases

Q: Identify and explain the styles of decision-making.

Q: Directive-type decision makers procrastinate and focus on long-term decisions.

Q: People using the directive style of decision making are efficient and logical.

Q: A style of decision making that relies heavily on meetings for communicating is the ________ style. A) behavioral B) analytic C) autocratic D) conceptual E) directive

Q: People using the behavioral style of decision making have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ________. A) working well with others B) seeking acceptance C) concern with the achievement of others D) avoiding conflict E) seeking lots of information

Q: Which style of decision making is very broad in outlook and considers many alternatives? A) intuitive B) analytic C) behavioral D) directive E) conceptual

Q: A style of decision making that characterizes managers as careful decision makers with the ability to adapt or cope with new situations is the ________ style. A) behavioral B) analytic C) autocratic D) conceptual E) directive

Q: Which of the following is a style of decision-making? A) autocratic B) democratic C) analytic D) liaise faire E) cooperative

Q: People using the directive style of decision making have which of the following characteristics? A) high tolerance for ambiguity B) incongruous thinking C) rationality D) need for maximum information E) efficient and logical

Q: A decision-making tool for supervisors that permits decision makers to place a monetary value on the various consequences likely to result from the selection of a particular course of action is called the ________. A) objective strategy B) expected value analysis C) strategy formulation D) probability of occurrence E) intuitive approach

Q: Identify and explain the steps a supervisor uses in the decision-making process.

Q: If follow-up and evaluation indicate that the sought-after results weren't achieved, the supervisor must still implement the final decision.

Q: You can improve the final outcome in the decision-making process if you acknowledge your biases and overtly attempt to control them.

Q: In developing alternatives, the fewer alternatives you can generate the better your final decision will be.

Q: Solving the wrong problem perfectly is no better outcome, and may be worse, than coming up with the wrong solution to the right problem.

Q: Marginal analysis deals with what type of cost in a particular decision? A) indirect labor B) direct labor C) average D) additional E) minimal

Q: A process that deals with the additional cost in a particular decision rather than the average cost is called ________ analysis. A) economic B) strategic C) marginal D) net income E) net productivity

Q: The concept of marginal or incremental analysis helps decision makers to ________. A) determine global competition B) analyze trade agreements C) protect government expenditures D) establish accounting procedures E) optimize returns or minimize costs

Q: A decision tree analyzes which of the following? A) global competition B) accounting procedures C) trade agreements D) equipment purchases E) monetary value

Q: Decision trees are useful tools to analyze all EXCEPT ________. A) marketing B) equipment purchases C) investment D) hiring E) quality control

Q: A useful way to analyze hiring, marketing, investment, equipment purchases, pricing, and similar decisions that involve a progression of decisions is to use ________. A) market research B) PERT diagrams C) just-in-time inventories D) a decision tree E) accounting procedures

Q: Which of the following is one way to help a supervisor properly implement the decision? A) centralize authority B) assign responsibilities C) determine success potential D) enlist employee cooperation E) consider possible deadlines

Q: Selection of the best alternative in the decision-making process depends on which of the following? A) commitment to the issue B) support of middle managers C) quantity of information gathered D) supervisor's ingenuity in developing alternatives E) volume of output