Q&A Hero

Q: Before implementing teams, supervisors should carefully evaluate whether the work requires or will benefit from ________. A) disorganization B) collective effort C) emergent leaders D) pseudo leaders E) challenges

Q: One thing supervisors can do to overcome obstacles in creating teams and to help teams reach their full potential is ________. A) micromanage B) macro-manage C) discourage small wins D) ignore skill gaps E) create a clear purpose

Q: Critical obstacles that can prevent teams from becoming high performing include which of the following? A) mutual trust B) small wins C) external support D) lack of trust E) team-building training

Q: Teams need to have all the complementary skills when they are formed.

Q: Effective teams contain a small number of people with complementary skills who are equally committed to a common purpose, goals, and working approach.

Q: The best way to describe a pseudo team is "going in the right direction but not there yet."

Q: Typically teams outperform individuals when the tasks being performed require multiple skills, judgment, and experience.

Q: Broader than any specific goals, high-performing teams have a common and meaningful ________ that provides direction, momentum, and commitment for members. A) job B) plan C) goal D) purpose E) task

Q: To perform effectively, a team requires all of types of skills including ________ skills. A) Internet B) writing C) speaking D) decision-making E) organizing

Q: A unit with a set of common characteristics that lead to consistently high performance is known as a ________. A) real team B) team C) working group D) potential team E) working team

Q: "Going in the right direction but has not yet established a sense of collective accountability" is the best way to describe a ________. A) real team B) team C) working group D) potential team E) pseudo team

Q: A(n) ________ is the product of negative synergy because of factors such as poor communication, antagonistic conflicts, and avoidance of responsibilities. A) working group B) advisory committee C) potential team D) pseudo team E) real team

Q: A group of individuals who interact primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each other perform within a given area of responsibility is known as a(n) ________. A) advisory committee B) potential team C) working group D) real team E) pseudo team

Q: Groups and teams are not necessarily the same thing. Explain how a working group evolves into a real team.

Q: Supervisors are most likely to be involved with teams that are created to ________. A) manage B) provide advice C) select a new site D) make or do things E) benchmark competitors

Q: Teams fall into three categories; the purpose of one category is to ________. A) confront B) benchmark C) advise D) delegate E) norm

Q: Describe how group norms impact the performance of a group and explain what a supervisor can do when those norms hinder performance.

Q: When supervisors consistently reiterate formal departmental goals and make clear which behaviors are consistent with achieving those goals, ________ become more readily evident. A) personal associations B) cliques C) dysfunctional behaviors D) informal groups E) power alliances

Q: How does a supervisor recognize an emergent leader?

Q: Emergent leaders have influence over members of all groups.

Q: Supervisors can work effectively with emergent leaders in workgroups if they ________. A) deny their influence B) delegate tedious tasks to them C) isolate them D) build ties with them E) reject their influence

Q: Tending to be central links in the informal communication chain, important information reaches ________ early, and they pass on information to others. A) supervisors B) managers C) pseudo leaders D) emergent leaders E) informal leaders

Q: The degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group is known as cohesiveness.

Q: Cohesive groups may create special challenges for supervisors because members are unified. In global teams, however, cohesiveness is often more difficult to achieve because of ________. A) mistrust and miscommunication B) inaccuracies C) distance from parent organization D) cultural norms E) time zone distance

Q: Studies consistently show that a group's cohesiveness and productivity depend on the ________ they establish. A) rules B) attendance-related norms C) performance-related norms D) goals E) time commitments

Q: The more ________ the group, the more its members will pursue its goals. A) assertive B) blended C) cohesive D) friendly E) diverse

Q: Cohesiveness is important because it has been found to be related to a group's ________. A) identity B) relationships C) purpose D) communication E) productivity

Q: The degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in a group is known as ________. A) productivity B) teaming C) training D) cohesiveness E) integration

Q: To understand and appreciate ________, three factors need to be considered: norms, cohesiveness, and emergent leadership. A) groups B) teams C) formal teams D) informal groups E) formal groups

Q: Supervisors are interested in the workings of informal groups because they can ________ and affect productivity in their departments. A) disrupt the flow of work B) complicate processes C) shape the behavior of employees D) cause work stoppages E) become assertive

Q: Norms dictate these things on the job EXCEPT ________. A) amount of socializing allowed on the job B) promptness or tardiness C) absenteeism rates D) output levels E) honesty

Q: Work groups typically provide their members with explicit cues on ________. A) union membership B) when to request vacation C) who is the group liaison D) how hard to work E) the supervisor's anniversary

Q: Probably the most widespread norms in many organizations are related to levels of ________. A) budget and control B) hierarchy C) employee wages D) effort and performance E) strategic planning

Q: What is a group and how does a formal group differ from an informal group?

Q: Formal work groups are the same as teams.

Q: Formal groups are work groups established outside the organization.

Q: A group is defined as two or more interacting and interdependent individuals who come together to achieve particular objectives.

Q: For individuals with a high power need, groups can be a vehicle for ________. A) commitment B) communication C) promotion D) fulfillment E) direct access

Q: One of the appealing aspects of groups is that they represent ________, because what often cannot be achieved individually becomes possible through group action. A) power B) unity C) togetherness D) organization E) representation

Q: For many individuals their primary means of fulfilling their need for affiliation is ________. A) off-the-job interactions B) vacations C) breaks D) on-the-job interactions E) lunch breaks

Q: Which of the following is NOT a reason why employees join groups? A) security B) self-esteem C) affiliation D) money E) power

Q: Affiliation with groups helps an individual to feel stronger, have fewer ________ and be more resistant to threats. A) personal issues B) arguments C) self-doubts D) emotional crises E) absences

Q: Groups which are natural formations that appear in the work environment in response to the need for social contact are called ________. A) teams B) informal groups C) cliques D) social groups E) formal groups

Q: Formal workgroups are not the same as teams because often they are comprised of individuals who sporadically interact but who have no ________ that requires joint efforts. A) technical skills B) common interest C) collective commitment D) responsibility E) mutual respect

Q: Workgroups established by the organization and given designated work assignments and established tasks are called ________. A) task force teams B) teams C) informal groups D) groups E) formal groups

Q: Two or more interacting and interdependent individuals who come together to achieve particular objectives are called ________. A) a group B) a formal group C) an informal group D) a formal team E) an informal team

Q: Which one of these suggestions would not improve feedback? A) direct feedback toward behavior the receiver can control B) focus on specific behaviors C) keep feedback goal oriented D) keep feedback personal E) make feedback well-timed

Q: Identify and distinguish passive listening from active listening, listing the requirements for active listening.

Q: Actively listening with ________ requires suspending personal thoughts and feelings and adjusting what is thought and felt to the speaker's world. A) feedback B) facial expression C) empathy D) tolerance E) intensity

Q: There are four requirements for active listening. A behavior that would NOT apply to active listening would be to listen with ________. A) intensity B) empathy C) eagerness to respond D) acceptance E) willingness to take responsibility for completeness

Q: Active listening requires people to understand a communication ________. A) based on personal experience B) without facial expression C) while making notes D) from the speaker's viewpoint E) from their own perspective

Q: Identify guidelines a supervisor may follow to improve communication effectiveness.

Q: An effective supervisor always needs to be assertive.

Q: Nonverbal clues are an unreliable form of feedback.

Q: Understanding is improved when the speaker tailors language to the audience.

Q: Training designed to make people more open and self-expressive without being rude or thoughtless is known as ________. A) assertiveness training B) T-group modification C) regressive behavior training D) role playing E) sensitivity training

Q: Supervisors who simplify their language and consider the audience to whom the message is directed are ________. A) matching words and actions B) tailoring language to the receivers C) constraining emotions D) learning to listen E) utilizing feedback

Q: Most barriers to effective communication can be overcome through use of the following EXCEPT ________. A) learning to listen B) positive selection C) tailoring language to the receiver D) thinking first E) constraining emotions

Q: Describe four barriers to effective communication and explain how those barriers impact a supervisor.

Q: The amount of information transmitted in a face-to-face conversation is less rich than that received from reading a flier or a bulletin board.

Q: As organizations impose distinct role requirements on different members, they eliminate communication barriers.

Q: A large part of oral communication is derived from verbal intonations.

Q: A good deal of what passes as "poor communication" is nothing other than individuals purposely avoiding ________. A) feedback from the sender B) nonverbal communication C) individual frame of reference D) honesty and openness E) communication stereotypes

Q: The more ambiguous and complicated the message, the more the sender should rely on ________. A) encoding B) a rich communication medium C) stereotyping the message D) perception of the value of the message E) feedback of the sender

Q: Behavior patterns that correspond to the positions individuals occupy in an organization are referred to as ________. A) styles B) roles C) professions D) traits E) images

Q: Effective communication means the transference and understanding of meaning. But you cannot know if someone has received your message and comprehended it in the way that you meant unless you seek ________. A) encoding B) decoding C) feedback D) thoughts E) body language

Q: The transference and understanding of meaning is an indication of ________. A) effective communication B) visionary management C) achieving management objectives D) effective benchmarks E) competitive pressures

Q: People who do not have good listening skills are not going to get the full message as the ________. A) sender meant to convey it B) communication channel was delivered C) message was distorted by the feedback D) signal was decoded by the receiver E) feedback was originated

Q: Even when we speak the same language, our use of that language is hardly ________. A) limited B) understandable C) complicated D) uniform E) colorful

Q: Since senders and receivers of communication each bring their own sets of perceptual biases, the messages they seek to transfer are often subject to ________. A) investigation B) distortion C) observation D) recognition E) reproduction

Q: All of these are grapevine patterns EXCEPT ________. A) cluster B) two-tier C) gossip D) probability E) single strand

Q: List and discuss five of the ten instant messaging dos and don'ts. Provide a business rationale for those five you select.

Q: Because ________ are available to a wide audience many organizations institute a code of ethics that is applied to all postings. A) bulletin boards B) e-mails C) blogs D) instant messages E) inter-departmental memos

Q: As text-messaging shorthand becomes increasingly widespread, at many workplaces a working knowledge of ________ is becoming necessary. A) e-mail B) information technology C) the Internet D) Twitter E) Net lingo

Q: For important and complex communications, a permanent record of e-mail messages can be obtained by ________. A) contacting human resources B) requesting from an IT specialist C) printing a hard copy D) saving the message on the computer E) asking the sender for a copy

Q: Which of the following allows supervisors to transmit messages twenty-four hours a day? A) grapevine B) e-mail C) team meetings D) bulletin board E) informal discussions

Q: Identify and explain the different communication methods supervisors use.

Q: A message that has a long-term implication and is highly complex should be conveyed orally.

Q: Oral communication transmits information quickly through the spoken word and includes a nonverbal component that can enhance the message.

Q: Formal communication addresses task-related issues and tends to follow an organization's authority chain.