Q&A Hero

Q: Sitting on an idea and using the time to collect massive data that may be stored, retrieved, studied, reshaped, and molded into something new is referred to as the process of ________. A) inspiration B) stimulation C) incubation D) perception E) innovation

Q: In the creative process, the moment when all prior efforts come together successfully is referred to as ________. A) inspiration B) innovation C) incubation D) perception E) stimulation

Q: Describe the fourfold process of creativity.

Q: In the dynamic world of global competition, organizations must create new products and services and adopt state-of-the-art technology if they are to compete successfully.

Q: ________ positively influence innovation because they are lower in work specialization, have fewer rules, and are more decentralized than bureaucracies. A) Democracies B) Autocracies C) Formalized structures D) Less formalized structures E) Work teams

Q: An innovative culture is likely to have several characteristics including ________. A) structured schedules B) acceptance of ambiguity C) tolerance for the practical D) focus on the means E) closed systems focus

Q: When you are engaged in distributive bargaining, your tactics should focus on trying to get your opponent to agree to your specific target point or to get as close to it as possible.

Q: In general, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because it ________ and facilitates working together in the future. A) costs less money B) takes less time C) salves hurt feeling D) builds long-term relationships E) satisfies management objectives

Q: ________ problem solving operates under the assumption that there is at least one settlement that can create a win-win solution. A) Negotiated B) Collaborative C) Integrative D) Coalition E) Distributive

Q: When parties are engaged in ________ bargaining, supervisors' tactics should focus on trying to get the opponent to agree to their specific target point or to get as close to it as possible. A) collaborative B) compromise C) distributive D) accommodated E) integrative

Q: Probably the most widely cited example of ________ is in labor-management negotiations over wages and benefits. A) collectivism B) distributive bargaining C) integrative bargaining D) conflict resolution E) accommodation

Q: The type of bargaining process that operates from a zero-sum condition is ________ bargaining. A) collective B) target-point C) integrative D) distributive E) coalition

Q: The process by which two or more parties who have different preferences must make a joint decision and come to an agreement is ________. A) negotiation B) accommodation C) conflict resolution D) collaboration E) compromise

Q: Explain how a supervisor can make discipline progressive.

Q: Proper documentation of all disciplinary action is the best protection against employees who claim, "I never knew there was any problem," or "I was treated unfairly."

Q: Defining what is "reasonable in relation to the offense" is one of the most challenging aspects of the discipline process.

Q: Action that begins with a verbal warning, and then proceeds through written reprimands, suspension, and finally, in the most serious cases, dismissal is ________. A) an inevitable consequence B) justifiable termination C) progressive discipline D) logical punishment E) discordant justification

Q: Documentary written evidence of an employee's activities that tells what has transpired over a given period of time is referred to as a(n) ________. A) documentation path B) narrative C) activity script D) activity log E) paper trail

Q: Explain why a supervisor might need to discipline an employee, how to do it properly, and how to minimize any potential and undue conflict that may arise.

Q: ________ problems should be responded to with solutions such as skill training, job redesign, or a job transfer. A) Attitude B) Relationship C) Family D) Ability E) Disability

Q: Discipline generally follows a typical sequence of four steps that include the following EXCEPT ________. A) verbal warning B) written warning C) suspension D) covert probation E) dismissal

Q: Actions taken by a supervisor to enforce the organization's standards and regulations is referred to by the general term ________. A) discipline B) enforcement C) regulation D) assertion E) standardization

Q: Define politicking and list examples of political behavior.

Q: Because power varies among individuals, a supervisor will need to determine which individuals or groups will be powerful in a given situation.

Q: The political nature of organizations can be acknowledged in the statement "Do not use conflict-stimulation techniques, even if they improve your department's performance, if your organization's senior management views all conflicts as bad."

Q: To help guide a supervisor in differentiating ethical from unethical politicking, there are some questions to consider. One question addresses ________ versus organizational goals. A) rumors B) team goals C) union contracts D) self-interest E) community interest

Q: Organizations are made up of individuals and groups with different values, goals, and interests. This sets up the potential for conflict over ________. A) resources B) equal opportunities C) long-term plans D) goals E) performance standards

Q: The actions you take to influence or attempt to influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within your organization are ________. A) politicking B) leadership C) cohesiveness D) bureaucracy E) manipulation

Q: Effective supervisors understand ________ and adjust their actions accordingly. A) economic factors B) the political nature of organizations C) their own motives D) communication with managers E) supervisory performance

Q: It is important for a supervisor's survival to adopt a conflict-management style that is compatible with ________. A) peers B) job descriptions C) employee handbook D) the organization E) union contracts

Q: A person who purposely presents arguments that run counter to those proposed by the majority or against current practices is performing the role of a ________. A) decision maker B) figurehead C) spokesperson D) devil's advocate E) liaison

Q: One of the major benefits of the diversity movement, which encourages the hiring and promotion of people who are dissimilar, is that it can ________ and improve an organization's performance. A) dampen curiosity B) promote conformity C) stimulate conflict D) calm conflict E) encourage togetherness

Q: A supervisor can use ________ to stimulate conflict in the department that may produce positive outcomes. A) force B) discussions and arguments C) rumors and ambiguous messages D) strong discipline E) strong suggestions

Q: Identify and explain the different approaches to conflict management.

Q: A devil's advocate is a person who purposely presents arguments that run parallel to those proposed by the majority.

Q: Sometimes compromise is the best conflict resolution technique - just withdrawing from the conflict or ignoring its existence.

Q: When it is crucial for a supervisor to resolve a conflict as quickly as possible, ________ in that order are preferred. A) force, accommodate, and compromise B) accommodate, collaborate, and avoid C) console, compromise, and listen D) extend, collaborate, and demand E) collaborate, reward, and appraise

Q: All supervisors have a basic resolution approach that reflects their ________. A) specialization B) family background C) disposition D) temperament E) personality

Q: Which conflict resolution technique goal might appear to be a "cop-out?" A) suggestion B) capitulation C) collaboration D) assertion E) avoidance

Q: Collaboration is a resolution technique that characterizes the ultimate ________. A) capitulation B) assertion C) win-win situation D) decision E) conclusion

Q: A conflict resolution approach that requires each party to give up something of value is ________. A) coercion B) capitulation C) compromise D) accommodation E) assertion

Q: A type of conflict resolution supervisors would use to satisfy their own needs at the expense of the other party by using their formal authority is ________. A) compromise B) avoidance C) collaboration D) accommodation E) forcing

Q: Which conflict resolution technique goal is to maintain harmonious relationships by placing another's needs and concerns above your own? A) collaboration B) compromise C) forcing D) avoidance E) accommodation

Q: The best resolution technique for managing a conflict that is trivial, when emotions are running high, and where time can help cool things is ________. A) avoidance B) compromise C) forcing D) collaboration E) accommodation

Q: There are five basic approaches or techniques supervisors can use to resolve conflicts in their departments: avoidance, accommodation, forcing, compromise, and ________. A) assertion B) coercion C) capitulation D) collaboration E) suggestion

Q: Identify and explain the general sources of conflict differences.

Q: Poor communication is the source of all conflicts.

Q: Some people may be perceived by others as abrasive, hard to work with, untrustworthy, or strange which creates ________ conflicts. A) mutual B) structural C) exchange D) communication E) interpersonal

Q: One source of conflict are differences, which include value systems and personality characteristics that account for individual idiosyncrasies and disagreements. A) communication B) personal C) structural D) contact E) exchange

Q: The creation of horizontal (departments) and vertical levels (organizational hierarchy) brings about efficiencies through specialization and coordination, but at the same time produces the potential for ________. A) ambiguous standards B) conflict resolution C) unity of command D) structural conflict E) stress, burnout, and emotional disorders

Q: Differences that encompass conflicts arising from misunderstandings and different meanings attached to words are ________ differences. A) personal B) cultural C) structural D) evaluation E) communication

Q: A supervisor's goal should be to have enough conflict in the department to keep the unit responsive and innovative, but not so much as to hinder departmental performance.

Q: If organizations were completely devoid of conflict, they would become apathetic, stagnant, and unresponsive to change.

Q: Because organizational members can have different goals, ________ is a natural phenomenon of organizational life. A) progress B) creativity C) teamwork D) discipline E) conflict

Q: Conflict in organizations has a positive side. It stimulates creativity, innovation, and change, and only through ________ can an organization adapt and survive. A) teamwork B) good management C) change D) homeostasis E) planning

Q: The process by which one party consciously interferes in the goal-achievement efforts of another party is ________. A) sabotage B) distress C) conflict D) disruption E) intrusion

Q: Across the United States less than one-fourth of all employees use ________. A) stress reduction techniques B) wellness programs C) group counseling D) therapy E) 12-step programs

Q: Many organizations offer ________ programs to employees who are experiencing personal problems in order to assist them in returning to productivity as swiftly as possible. A) twelve-step B) therapy C) EAP D) professional assistance E) worker rehab

Q: A type of program in an organization that is designed to keep employees healthy is a ________ program. A) wellness B) rehabilitation C) health maintenance D) job instruction E) behavioral

Q: Stress symptoms such as changes in eating habits, increased smoking or substance consumption, rapid speech, or sleep disorders are called ________ symptoms. A) psychological B) personal C) behavioral D) physiological E) habitual

Q: Supervisors have a ________ to ensure that the workplace is free from unnecessary hazards and that conditions surrounding the workplace are not hazardous to their employees' physical or mental health. A) personal responsibility B) ethical need C) legal responsibility D) commitment E) personal requirement

Q: The passage of the ________ Act dramatically changed the role that supervisors must play in ensuring that physical working conditions meet adequate standards. A) Taft-Hartley B) Right to Work C) Labor Standards D) Occupational Safety and Health E) Family and Medical Leave

Q: In 2012, according to preliminary data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics, 4,383 workers were killed on the job.

Q: Organizations not meeting the interstate commerce criteria of the OSH Act are generally covered by state occupational safety and health laws.

Q: The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health is the agency that researches and sets OSHA standards in such areas as blood-borne pathogens and chemical process safety.

Q: OSHA standards exist for which of the following conditions? A) legal work hours B) supervisory discipline practices C) employee break requirements D) accommodation for disabilities E) the height of toilet partitions

Q: OSHA enforces standards based on a five-item priority listing that includes all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) imminent danger B) random inspections C) serious accidents within the past eight hours D) current employee complaints E) dissatisfied customer complaints

Q: A condition in which an accident is about to occur is called ________. A) a serious injury B) an OSHA violation C) possible danger D) imminent danger E) inspection violation

Q: Concerns over chemical hazards, the need to identify hazardous chemicals in the workplace, and a desire to require supervisors to inform employees of the chemicals they might be exposed to led to ________ laws. A) right-to-work B) right-to-employ C) right-to-know D) rights and ethics E) right-to-inform

Q: Even if an employee sees a violation of OSHA standards, that employee has no right to call OSHA and request an investigation.

Q: Some union contracts stipulate that a worker may stay off the job with pay until OSHA arrives and either finds the complaint invalid or cites the company and mandates compliance.

Q: List the enforcement priorities of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

Q: To fulfill part of the requirements established under the OSH Act, supervisors in industries ________ must maintain safety and health records. A) in which fatalities occur B) with no safety committees C) in small towns D) with poor compliance records E) in which a high percentage of accidents and injuries occur

Q: Describe what supervisors must do to comply with OSHA record-keeping requirements.

Q: Injuries are reported to OSHA only when they require medical treatment, involve loss of consciousness or restriction of work or motion, or require transfer to another job.

Q: OSHA requires that any illness, no matter how insignificant it may appear, must be reported on Form 300.

Q: The best safety rules and regulation will be ineffective in reducing accidents if they are not ________. A) written B) posted C) agreed upon D) enforced E) easy

Q: Supervisors can prevent accidents through both the design of ________ and of jobs. A) performance standards B) training manuals C) equipment D) safety committee membership E) safety manuals

Q: One way supervisors can be assured that rules and regulations are being enforced is to develop some type of feedback system. This can be provided by ________. A) installing report boxes B) inspecting work surroundings C) soliciting peer reports D) providing each employee with a safety manual E) holding bi-annual safety meetings

Q: A measure of the number of injuries, illnesses, or lost workdays as it relates to a common base rate of 100 full-time employees is called the ________ rate. A) incidence B) failure C) accident D) lost workday E) medical treatment