Q&A Hero

Q: In many states the defense ______________a copy of the PSI report. a. produces. b. has total access to. c. does not receive. d. has no interest in.

Q: __________ conditions provide constraints on some probationers to force them to deal with a significant problem and need such as substance abuse. a. Standard b. Technical c. Treatment d. Punitive

Q: DNA is very useful in solving cold cases due to its hardiness and ability not to break down easily.

Q: In this country, probation began with the innovative work of Jeremy Bentham, an English boot-maker, who was the first to provide bail for defendants under the authority of the London Police Court in 1841. a. True b. False

Q: __________ is a drug that inhibits drinking. a. Methadone b. Cocaine c. Antabuse d. Malabuse

Q: The most common sentencing option used by U.S. judges today is intensive supervised probation. a. True b. False

Q: is the science of identifying, collecting, preserving, documenting, examining, analyzing, and presenting evidence from computers, computer networks, and other electronic devices.

Q: is one branch of forensic science that deals with the study of physical evidence related to crime.

Q: Probation officers have broad discretion to investigate potential rules violations and even new crimes. a. True b. False

Q: __________ conditions provide constraints on some probationers to increase the restrictiveness of probation including fines, community service, and restitution. a. Standard b. Technical c. Punitive d. Treatment

Q: Based on strong support for the use of case management systems, most U.S. probation officers use case management principles when supervising their probationers. a. True b. False

Q: The is a handheld electronic stun gun that discharges a high-voltage, low-amperage, pulsating currentvia tiny wires and darts, which can be fired from up to 15 feet away.

Q: Probation may be revoked if the probationer fails to attend a therapy program. a. True b. False

Q: technology enables a print technician to enter unidentified latent prints into the computer.

Q: The majority of probationers in the United States are: a. white and female. b. African American and male. c. white and male. d. Latino and male.

Q: OC in pepper spray stands for .

Q: Probation was originally used mainly for: a. first-time offenders. b. violent offenders. c. low-level offenders. d. guilty offenders.

Q: Which of the following was the first person to provide bail for defendants under the authority of the Boston Police Court in 1841? a. John Augustus b. Cesare Beccaria c. Zebulon Brockway d. Jeremy Benthem

Q: Programs that fail to follow the "five principles of effective programs" often make recidivism rates increase. a. True b. False

Q: Probation officers rely upon their authority because they have little substantive power. a. True b. False

Q: prints are fingerprint impressions left at a crime scene.

Q: PSIs disallow victim impact statements describing their emotional and financial losses due to the offender's action. a. True b. False

Q: What is the average caseload for probation officers in New York City? a. 77 probationers per officer b. 114 probationers per officer c. 162 probationers per officer d. 249 probationers per officer

Q: Jails are administered by: a. their state's governor. b. the federal government. c. locally-elected officials. d. the Department of Justice.

Q: prints are the result of the process of rolling each finger onto a ten-print card using fingerprinting ink.

Q: Trace evidence is analyzed by the section of the crime lab.

Q: Violence, rape, and health problems are direct and immediate consequences of: a. an increase of youthful male offenders. b. overcrowding. c. lax correctional supervision. d. inappropriate sexuality behind bars.

Q: A defendant's preliminary hearing can be waived. a. True b. False

Q: Alcohol and drugs or controlled substances are analyzed by the section of the crime lab.

Q: At a revocation hearing, the facts of the allegation are heard and decided. a. True b. False

Q: Almost 60 percent of America's jails ______ prisoners for at least some of the medical care they receive. a. punish b. charge c. turn away d. reprimand

Q: The law enforcer role of probation focuses on surveillance and control of the offender. a. True b. False

Q: __________ are direct descendants of 12th century English feudal practices. a. Prisons b. Bail processes c. Probation d. Jails

Q: Handwriting analysis is performed by the section of the crime lab.

Q: Sixty percent of probation sentences are received directly from the judge. a. True b. False

Q: According to the authors, which of the following is of particular importance for today's jails? a. quality of prisoner food b. quality of recreational programs for offenders c. legal liability d. all of these

Q: Blood and semen evidence is analyzed by the section of the crime lab.

Q: Which statement is not an argument made in favor of pretrial diversion. a. Many offenders cannot be effectively dealt with by the formal criminal justice system. b. It is much more humane than traditional criminal justice services. c. It does not promote a long-term "label" on offenders like most criminal justice activities. d. It is much cheaper than criminal justice processing.

Q: Gun and bullet evidence is analyzed by the section of the crime lab.

Q: DNA is the abbreviation for .

Q: Those on probation tend to be low-level offenders. a. True b. False

Q: Which statement is not an argument made towards the subject of preventive detention. a. It may violate the due process provisions of the Constitution. b. It is typically employed only against property offenders. c. It is impractical and can be potentially nefarious. d. It is difficult to identify those individuals for whom this concept would most aptly apply.

Q: During the sentencing phase of a revocation hearing, the judge decides whether to impose a term of incarceration and if so, for how long. a. True b. False

Q: FATS stands for __________.

Q: Discuss the three major issues within jail management. Next, propose a viable solution to each individual issue. What would be the potential downside of your solution (if any)? Be sure to fully explain.

Q: By far the most successful pretrial release program is: a. unsecured bail. b. percentage bail. c. forfeit bail. d. release on recognizance (ROR).

Q: What is pretrial diversion? List and explain the three main reasons why it tends to be supported as a practice. What do critics counter? Should pretrial diversion be used more or less frequently? Be sure to fully defend your answer.

Q: A common strategy in dealing with offenders with substance dependency problems is: a. release to an addiction treatment facility. b. placement in a methadone maintenance program. c. a steady program of withdrawal within the jail setting. d. both release to an addiction treatment facility and placement in a methadone maintenance program.

Q: CAI stands for __________.

Q: In your own words, describe the typical demographic profile of a jail inmate found in the United States today. What are the implications for this typical group found within U.S. jails? What does this say about our current justice system?

Q: The forerunner in the use of modern sophisticated automated crime analysis was the New York City Police Department's program.

Q: ViCAP stands for __________.

Q: According to your text, jail suicides are primarily caused by: a. the limited personal space provided in jail facilities. b. the crisis nature of arrest and detention. c. emotional instability, which is exacerbated by the jail experience. d. both the crisis nature of arrest and detention and emotional instability.

Q: The nation has just over __________ jails. a. 1,500 b. 2,800 c. 4,200 d. 1,000

Q: Discuss the differences between day reporting centers and electronic monitoring. What types of offenders should be assigned to these facilities versus electronic monitoring, and what are the positive/negative aspects of these types of monitoring?

Q: A system where jail operations are funded by a set amount paid for each prisoner held per day is: a. a welfare system. b. a fixed rate system. c. a fee system. d. a provider system.

Q: NCIC stands for __________.

Q: Discuss the concept of preventive detention. Why would your state practice this method and what are its intended benefits? What are the possible negative effects if a state opts not to incorporate preventive detention? In your opinion, do the potential risks of not incorporating it outweigh the benefits?

Q: Jails are the _________ the criminal justice system. a. the most valued part of b. exitway from c. barrier to d. entry point into

Q: __________are devices put into police vehicles that allow the electronic transmission of messages between the police dispatcher and the officers in the field.

Q: _________________ refers to a jail system in which jail operations are funded by a set amount paid each day by prisoners who are being held.

Q: ______________ refers to a facility often referred to as a "drunk tank" that is authorized to hold people prior to court appearances and are usually managed by local municipal police agencies.

Q: In law enforcement, CAD stands for .

Q: According to the text, the central purpose of the early jail was: a. the warehousing of the surplus population of immigrants. b. detention of those sentenced by the court. c. to make sure those accused of a crime would show up for their trials. d. to inflict short-term punishment (for example, corporal punishment) on the offender.

Q: Jails in the United States descend directly from the country of ________________.

Q: Fraudulently acquiring private or sensitive information using computer program expertise and techniques is called: a. spyware. b. trojan horse attack. c. phishing. d. malware.

Q: Which of the following pressures are not experienced by the local jail? a. The direction of the jail is influenced by local law enforcement officials. b. Local politics, in particular party patronage, influences the operation of the jail. c. Local offender assistance programs are usually operated by community self-help volunteers. d. All of these are experienced by local jails.

Q: Overall, jail population sizes tend to be: a. stable. b. small. c. variable d. constant

Q: a. staff has direct contact with offenders b. Prosecutor makes deal with defendant to steer clear of incapacitation experience c. protection to the community by incarcerating an offender violators report daily d. supervision under home confinement e. holding tanks for up to 48 hours pretrial release f. person who provides bail money for a fee g. rehabilitative jail h. pretrial and probation i. Funded per prisoner per day j. Fee specified by a judge as a condition for 1) Bondsman 2) Day reporting center 3) Fee system 4) Bail 5) Direct supervision 6) Electronic monitoring 7) Lockup 8) Prevention detention 9) Therapeutic justice 10) Pretrial diversion

Q: _______________ refers to a facility operated under joint agreement between two or more government units.

Q: The first scientist to use DNA profiling in a criminal case was: a. Alec Jeffreys. b. Joseph Wambaugh. c. Barry Scheck. d. Gerald Sheindlin.

Q: _______________ refers to a facility with a podular architectural design and management policies that emphasize interaction with inmates and staff and provision services.

Q: Deoxyribonucleic acid is otherwise known as: a. DMA. b. DEA. c. DYA. d. DNA.

Q: ______________ refers to a philosophy of reorienting the jail experience from being mostly punitive to being mostly rehabilitative.

Q: The analysis of poisons and other toxic substances in a person's body is called forensic: a. toxicology. b. pathology. c. physical anthropology. d. odontology.

Q: The period ___________ after arrest and detention is when most inmates commit suicide.

Q: Over half of the occupants in U.S. jails are ___________.

Q: The examination of dead bodies is called forensic: a. toxicology. b. pathology. c. physical anthropology. d. odontology.

Q: The examination of skeletal remains is called forensic: a. toxicology b. pathology c. physical anthropology d. odontology

Q: Detaining the accused in jail to protect the community from possible future crimes by the accused pending trial is known as ________________.